a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is starting to take carbidopalevodopa to treat parkinsons disease which of the following instr

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is starting to take carbidopa/levodopa to treat Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. This medication can cause your urine to turn a dark color.
B. Expect immediate relief after taking this medication.
C. Take the medication with a high protein food.
D. Skip a dose of the medication if you experience dizziness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching is that carbidopa/levodopa can cause the client's urine to turn a dark color, which is a harmless effect. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about this common side effect. Choice B is incorrect because immediate relief is not expected; therapeutic effects may take weeks to months. Choice C is incorrect as carbidopa/levodopa should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect as the client should not skip doses without consulting their healthcare provider, even if they experience dizziness.

2. What ECG changes are expected in a patient with hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves
B. Prominent U waves
C. Widened QRS complexes
D. Tall T waves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily presents with flattened T waves, not prominent U waves, widened QRS complexes, or tall T waves. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia only in severe cases. Widened QRS complexes are more indicative of hyperkalemia, while tall T waves are seen in hyperkalemia as well.

3. A client is being taught about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for colorectal cancer screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. Your provider will use a stool sample obtained during a digital rectal examination to perform the test.
B. Your provider will recommend a stimulant laxative before the test to empty the bowel.
C. You should start annual fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at the age of 40.
D. You should avoid corticosteroids before the test.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse should advise the client to avoid corticosteroids, anti-inflammatory medications, and vitamin C before fecal occult blood testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect as stool samples for FOBT are usually collected using a kit at home. Choice B is incorrect because stimulant laxatives are not typically used before FOBT. Choice C is incorrect as guidelines recommend starting colorectal cancer screening at the age of 50, not 40.

4. What dietary recommendations should be provided for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
B. Increase sodium intake
C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
D. Limit potassium-rich foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excessive phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as the kidneys may not be able to effectively remove it from the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for patients with kidney disease as it can lead to fluid retention and high blood pressure. Restricting protein intake is important in later stages of kidney disease, but for pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, protein intake should be individualized based on the patient's condition. Limiting potassium-rich foods is more relevant for patients with advanced kidney disease or those on dialysis, as impaired kidney function can lead to high potassium levels in the blood.

5. What are the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome?

A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
B. Localized redness and swelling
C. Fever and infection
D. Loss of sensation in the affected area

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. Unrelieved pain is a key characteristic, indicating tissue ischemia due to increased pressure within a closed anatomic space. Pallor results from compromised blood flow, and pulselessness indicates severe ischemia requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because localized redness and swelling, fever and infection, and loss of sensation are not specific signs of compartment syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is A.