ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. How does hyponatremia place the patient at risk?
- A. Seizures
- B. Fatigue
- C. Cardiac dysrhythmias
- D. Muscle weakness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hyponatremia places the patient at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. While hyponatremia can lead to seizures due to cerebral edema caused by fluid imbalance, the most immediate and life-threatening risk is cardiac dysrhythmias. Low sodium levels can disrupt the heart's electrical activity, potentially leading to fatal arrhythmias. Although fatigue and muscle weakness are symptoms of hyponatremia, cardiac dysrhythmias pose the most critical concern as they can have severe consequences.
2. When caring for a patient with a burn injury, what is the priority intervention?
- A. Monitor the burn area for infection
- B. Administer IV fluids
- C. Debride the burn area
- D. Apply a dry dressing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority intervention when caring for a patient with a burn injury is to monitor the burn area for infection. This is crucial to prevent further complications such as sepsis. While administering IV fluids is important for fluid resuscitation, it is not the top priority compared to preventing infection. Debriding the burn area and applying a dry dressing are necessary interventions for wound care, but ensuring there is no infection takes precedence to avoid sepsis and other serious complications.
3. What dietary modifications are recommended for a patient with pre-dialysis kidney disease?
- A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase sodium intake to 3 g/day
- C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
- D. Eat three large meals per day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Patients with pre-dialysis kidney disease should limit phosphorus intake to prevent further kidney damage. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is not recommended in pre-dialysis kidney disease. Choice C is incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation in advanced kidney disease, not pre-dialysis. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day is not a specific dietary modification for pre-dialysis kidney disease.
4. What is the first nursing action for a patient admitted with chest pain from acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Check the patient's urine output
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. Obtain cardiac enzymes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This is the priority action for a patient admitted with chest pain from acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, and relieve chest pain. Checking the patient's urine output (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) may not be necessary unless indicated by the patient's condition. Obtaining cardiac enzymes (Choice D) is important but is not the initial action needed to address the patient's acute symptoms.
5. What intervention is needed for a patient with a chest tube and an air leak?
- A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
- B. Replace the chest tube
- C. Clamp the chest tube
- D. Continue to monitor the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient with a chest tube and an air leak is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This step helps prevent air leaks and ensures the proper functioning of the chest tube. Choice B, replacing the chest tube, is not necessary as tightening the connections should be attempted first. Clamping the chest tube (Choice C) is not recommended as it can lead to complications by obstructing the drainage system. Continuing to monitor the chest tube (Choice D) without taking action may result in worsening of the air leak. Therefore, the priority intervention is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system.
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