a nurse is assessing a client who has a permanent spinal cord injury and is scheduled for discharge which of the following client statements indicates
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a permanent spinal cord injury and is scheduled for discharge. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client is coping effectively?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it shows that the client has accepted their disability and is looking towards the future with realistic goals. This positive attitude and focus on engaging in activities that are achievable despite the disability indicate effective coping mechanisms. Choice B is incorrect as it reflects denial of the permanent nature of the disability. Choice C is incorrect as it shows feelings of anger and possible self-blame, which are not indicative of effective coping. Choice D is incorrect as it demonstrates a sense of hopelessness and self-perceived burden, which are signs of maladaptive coping.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. The client has a peripheral IV and a prescription for an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL with 40 mEq potassium chloride to infuse over 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to verify the prescription with the provider. This is crucial to prevent injury from fluid volume overload and rapid potassium infusion. Verifying the prescription ensures that the correct solution, rate, and additives are ordered according to the client's condition. While evaluating the patency of the IV is important, verifying the prescription takes precedence to ensure patient safety. Consulting with the pharmacist can be beneficial, but confirming the prescription with the provider is the immediate priority. Teaching the client about IV extravasation is important but is not the first action the nurse should take in this scenario.

3. What should a healthcare provider teach a patient who has experienced an acute episode of gastritis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid foods high in potassium. During an acute episode of gastritis, it is advisable to avoid foods high in potassium as they can exacerbate symptoms. Potassium-rich foods may irritate the stomach lining, leading to increased discomfort. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in sodium is not specifically related to managing gastritis. Increasing exercise to reduce stress is a good general recommendation but not directly related to managing gastritis symptoms. Drinking milk as a snack is not recommended for gastritis as dairy products can sometimes worsen symptoms due to their fat content.

4. What ECG changes are associated with hyperkalemia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is known to cause ST depression on an ECG. Flattened T waves are more commonly seen in hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia. Elevated ST segments are not typical findings in hyperkalemia.

5. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be placed in halo traction following surgical repair of the cervical spine. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's skin under the halo vest. This is important to assess for signs of skin issues such as excessive sweating, redness, or blistering, which can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice A is incorrect because while inspecting the pin site is important, it should be done more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as the halo device should be supported by the client's body weight, not personnel, when repositioning. Choice D is incorrect because applying powder frequently can increase the risk of skin irritation and infection.

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