ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a permanent spinal cord injury and is scheduled for discharge. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client is coping effectively?
- A. I would like to play wheelchair basketball. When I get stronger, I think I'll look for a league.
- B. I'm glad I'll only be in this wheelchair temporarily. I can't wait to get back to running.
- C. I'm so upset that this happened to me. What did I do to deserve this?
- D. I feel like I'll never be able to do anything that I want to again. All I am is a burden to my family.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it shows that the client has accepted their disability and is looking towards the future with realistic goals. This positive attitude and focus on engaging in activities that are achievable despite the disability indicate effective coping mechanisms. Choice B is incorrect as it reflects denial of the permanent nature of the disability. Choice C is incorrect as it shows feelings of anger and possible self-blame, which are not indicative of effective coping. Choice D is incorrect as it demonstrates a sense of hopelessness and self-perceived burden, which are signs of maladaptive coping.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a positive Kernig's sign?
- A. After stroking the lateral area of the foot, the client's toes contract and draw together
- B. After hip flexion, the client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain
- C. The client's voluntary movement is not coordinated
- D. The client reports pain and stiffness when flexing their neck
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A positive Kernig's sign is identified when a client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain after hip flexion. This finding suggests meningeal irritation. Choices A, C, and D do not describe Kernig's sign. Choice A describes a normal plantar reflex, Choice C refers to coordination deficits, and Choice D indicates neck pain and stiffness, which are not related to Kernig's sign.
3. What dietary recommendations should a patient with GERD follow?
- A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
- B. Consume liquids between meals
- C. Eat three large meals per day
- D. Drink milk as a snack
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients with GERD should follow dietary recommendations to manage their symptoms effectively. Choice A, 'Avoid mint and spicy foods,' is the correct answer. Mint and spicy foods can trigger acid reflux and worsen GERD symptoms. Choice B, 'Consume liquids between meals,' is not the best recommendation as consuming liquids during meals can worsen GERD symptoms by increasing stomach pressure. Choice C, 'Eat three large meals per day,' is incorrect as large meals can exacerbate GERD symptoms; instead, smaller, more frequent meals are recommended. Choice D, 'Drink milk as a snack,' is not ideal as full-fat dairy products like milk can trigger acid reflux in some individuals. Therefore, the best recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods.
4. What is the priority intervention for a patient with unstable angina?
- A. Administer nitroglycerin
- B. Establish IV access
- C. Auscultate heart sounds
- D. Administer aspirin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the priority intervention for a patient with unstable angina as it helps dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, relieve chest pain, and prevent further cardiac damage. Establishing IV access (choice B) may be important but is not the priority over administering nitroglycerin in this scenario. Auscultating heart sounds (choice C) and administering aspirin (choice D) are also important aspects of managing unstable angina, but they are not the immediate priority intervention when a patient is experiencing chest pain.
5. What are the expected findings in a patient experiencing hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves on an ECG
- B. Elevated ST segments
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on an ECG. Hypokalemia is characterized by flattened T waves on an ECG, which is an early indicator of low potassium levels. Elevated ST segments (Choice B) are associated with conditions like myocardial infarction, not hypokalemia. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are typically seen in hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Bradycardia (Choice D) can be a manifestation of severe hypokalemia but is not as specific as flattened T waves on an ECG.
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