a nurse is assessing a client who has a permanent spinal cord injury and is scheduled for discharge which of the following client statements indicates
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a permanent spinal cord injury and is scheduled for discharge. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client is coping effectively?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it shows that the client has accepted their disability and is looking towards the future with realistic goals. This positive attitude and focus on engaging in activities that are achievable despite the disability indicate effective coping mechanisms. Choice B is incorrect as it reflects denial of the permanent nature of the disability. Choice C is incorrect as it shows feelings of anger and possible self-blame, which are not indicative of effective coping. Choice D is incorrect as it demonstrates a sense of hopelessness and self-perceived burden, which are signs of maladaptive coping.

2. What is the priority lab value to monitor in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV to assess the status of their immune system. A CD4 count of 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and a high risk of opportunistic infections. This value is used to guide treatment decisions and assess the need for prophylaxis against specific infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring white blood cell count, potassium levels, and hemoglobin levels, although important in HIV patients, are not as crucial as monitoring the CD4 T-cell count for assessing immune function and disease progression.

3. What are the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. Unrelieved pain is a key characteristic, indicating tissue ischemia due to increased pressure within a closed anatomic space. Pallor results from compromised blood flow, and pulselessness indicates severe ischemia requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because localized redness and swelling, fever and infection, and loss of sensation are not specific signs of compartment syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

4. What are the dietary recommendations for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. High phosphorus levels can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as the kidneys may not be able to filter it effectively. While limiting sodium intake to 1,500 mg/day and restricting protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day are important in managing kidney disease, the primary concern for this patient population is to control phosphorus levels. Increasing protein intake is not recommended as it can put additional strain on the kidneys. Therefore, option A is the most appropriate recommendation in this scenario.

5. What are the signs of compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs of compartment syndrome include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness due to increased pressure within a muscle compartment. Choice B, muscle weakness, and hyporeflexia are not typical signs of compartment syndrome. Choice C, pins-and-needles sensation and swelling, are not specific signs of compartment syndrome. Choice D, severe swelling and tightness in the affected extremity, could be seen in compartment syndrome but are not the primary signs.

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