ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What should be the priority action when a patient is admitted with chest pain from acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Obtain IV access
- C. Check cardiac enzymes
- D. Administer aspirin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This is the priority action in treating chest pain associated with acute coronary syndrome as it helps to dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, and reduce cardiac tissue damage. Administering nitroglycerin is crucial in managing the symptoms and potential complications of acute coronary syndrome. Obtaining IV access (Choice B) is important for administering medications and fluids but does not address the immediate symptom of chest pain. Checking cardiac enzymes (Choice C) and administering aspirin (Choice D) are essential steps in the management of acute coronary syndrome, but they should follow the administration of nitroglycerin to address the immediate symptom and improve blood flow to the heart.
2. A client scheduled for electromyography (EMG) will have small needle electrodes inserted into the muscles. What should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You will receive a fixed dose of radioisotope 2 hours before the procedure.
- B. Momentary flushing will occur at the beginning of the procedure.
- C. You should inform your provider if you are claustrophobic.
- D. You should expect insertion of small needle electrodes into the muscles.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. During an electromyography (EMG) procedure, small needle electrodes are inserted into the muscles to assess muscle weakness and nerve responses. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because radioisotope is not used in EMG, flushing is not a typical occurrence, and claustrophobia is more relevant for imaging procedures like MRI or CT scans, not EMG.
3. A patient reports abdominal cramping during an enema administration. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Increase the flow of the enema
- B. Lower the height of the enema solution container
- C. Stop the enema procedure
- D. Remove the enema tubing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during an enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. Lowering the container helps to relieve cramping by slowing the flow of the solution, making it more comfortable for the patient. Increasing the flow (Choice A) would exacerbate the cramping. Stopping the procedure (Choice C) may not be necessary if adjusting the height resolves the issue. Removing the enema tubing (Choice D) is not the initial action indicated for cramping; adjusting the height is the more appropriate intervention.
4. A nurse is planning care for a group of postoperative clients. Which of the following interventions should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Administer IV pain medication to a client who reports pain as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
- B. Administer oxygen to a client who has an oxygen saturation of 91%
- C. Instruct a client who is 1 hr postoperative about coughing and deep breathing exercises
- D. Initiate an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride for a client who has just had abdominal surgery
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority intervention is administering oxygen. Postoperatively, the client's oxygen saturation should be at or above 95%. Oxygen is essential for tissue perfusion and cellular oxygenation. While managing pain is important, oxygenation takes precedence. Instructing a client about coughing and deep breathing exercises is important for preventing respiratory complications but is not as urgent as addressing low oxygen saturation. Initiating an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride is a routine postoperative intervention for fluid balance but is not the priority when oxygen saturation is low.
5. What are the priority lab values to monitor in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Hemoglobin levels
- D. Serum albumin levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 count below 180 cells/mm3 is considered severe immunocompromise and requires close monitoring and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values to monitor in HIV patients. While white blood cell count, hemoglobin levels, and serum albumin levels can provide valuable information about the patient's health status, they are not as specific or indicative of HIV disease progression and management as the CD4 T-cell count.
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