a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease which of the following diets should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A patient with chronic kidney disease may require dietary restrictions. Which of the following diets should the healthcare provider prescribe?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease often require a potassium-restricted diet to help manage their electrolyte levels. Excessive potassium intake can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. While monitoring sodium intake is also important for these patients, a low sodium diet is not specifically indicated in the question. High phosphorus diet and high protein diet are not recommended for individuals with chronic kidney disease as they can further stress the kidneys and worsen the condition.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. The client has a peripheral IV and a prescription for an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL with 40 mEq potassium chloride to infuse over 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to verify the prescription with the provider. This is crucial to prevent injury from fluid volume overload and rapid potassium infusion. Verifying the prescription ensures that the correct solution, rate, and additives are ordered according to the client's condition. While evaluating the patency of the IV is important, verifying the prescription takes precedence to ensure patient safety. Consulting with the pharmacist can be beneficial, but confirming the prescription with the provider is the immediate priority. Teaching the client about IV extravasation is important but is not the first action the nurse should take in this scenario.

3. What symptoms are associated with a thrombotic stroke?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A thrombotic stroke presents with a gradual loss of function on one side of the body due to a clot blocking blood flow to the brain. This gradual onset distinguishes it from a hemorrhagic stroke with sudden symptoms like loss of consciousness (Choice B), and from other conditions like migraine, which may present with severe headache and vomiting (Choice D). Nausea (Choice C) is not typically a primary symptom associated with a thrombotic stroke.

4. What should be the priority action when a patient is admitted with chest pain from acute coronary syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This is the priority action in treating chest pain associated with acute coronary syndrome as it helps to dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, and reduce cardiac tissue damage. Administering nitroglycerin is crucial in managing the symptoms and potential complications of acute coronary syndrome. Obtaining IV access (Choice B) is important for administering medications and fluids but does not address the immediate symptom of chest pain. Checking cardiac enzymes (Choice C) and administering aspirin (Choice D) are essential steps in the management of acute coronary syndrome, but they should follow the administration of nitroglycerin to address the immediate symptom and improve blood flow to the heart.

5. What should the nurse do for a patient experiencing abdominal cramping during enema administration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. This action helps relieve the cramping by slowing down the flow of the solution. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is incorrect as it is too drastic and may not address the cramping. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, may exacerbate the cramping if the flow rate is still too high. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, would worsen the cramping and is not the appropriate intervention.

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