ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A patient with chronic kidney disease may require dietary restrictions. Which of the following diets should the healthcare provider prescribe?
- A. Low sodium diet
- B. Potassium restricted diet
- C. High phosphorus diet
- D. High protein diet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease often require a potassium-restricted diet to help manage their electrolyte levels. Excessive potassium intake can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. While monitoring sodium intake is also important for these patients, a low sodium diet is not specifically indicated in the question. High phosphorus diet and high protein diet are not recommended for individuals with chronic kidney disease as they can further stress the kidneys and worsen the condition.
2. What are the signs and symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke?
- A. Sudden severe headache, decreased level of consciousness, and seizures
- B. Loss of consciousness and weakness
- C. Temporary vision loss
- D. Severe chest pain and shortness of breath
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A hemorrhagic stroke often presents with a sudden severe headache, decreased level of consciousness, and seizures due to bleeding in the brain. Choice B, loss of consciousness and weakness, is more indicative of an ischemic stroke where a clot blocks blood flow to the brain. Choice C, temporary vision loss, is more commonly seen in conditions like transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) or retinal migraines. Choice D, severe chest pain and shortness of breath, are symptoms more associated with cardiac issues like a heart attack.
3. A patient has been diagnosed with a thrombotic stroke. What are the expected manifestations?
- A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
- B. Sudden loss of consciousness
- C. Seizures and confusion
- D. Loss of sensation in the affected limb
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Gradual loss of function on one side of the body.' Thrombotic strokes lead to slow and progressive symptoms as a result of decreased blood flow to a specific area of the brain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, seizures, confusion, and loss of sensation in the affected limb are not typical manifestations of a thrombotic stroke.
4. What ECG changes are expected in hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves on ECG
- B. Prominent U waves on ECG
- C. Widened QRS complexes on ECG
- D. ST elevation on ECG
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hypokalemia, flattened T waves are a common ECG finding due to the decreased extracellular potassium affecting repolarization. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia as well, but flattened T waves are the more specific and early ECG change. Widened QRS complexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. ST elevation is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, pericarditis, or early repolarization syndrome, not specifically in hypokalemia.
5. What intervention is required when continuous bubbling is seen in the chest tube water seal chamber?
- A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
- B. Clamp the chest tube
- C. Replace the chest tube
- D. Continue monitoring the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, tightening the connections of the chest tube system is the appropriate intervention. This action can often resolve an air leak, which is the common cause of continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing it is not recommended as the first-line intervention because it may lead to complications or unnecessary tube changes. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without addressing the air leak would delay necessary corrective action, potentially causing respiratory compromise in the patient. Therefore, tightening the connections of the chest tube system is the most suitable initial step to manage continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
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