a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease which of the following diets should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A patient with chronic kidney disease may require dietary restrictions. Which of the following diets should the healthcare provider prescribe?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease often require a potassium-restricted diet to help manage their electrolyte levels. Excessive potassium intake can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. While monitoring sodium intake is also important for these patients, a low sodium diet is not specifically indicated in the question. High phosphorus diet and high protein diet are not recommended for individuals with chronic kidney disease as they can further stress the kidneys and worsen the condition.

2. What dietary recommendations should be provided for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excessive phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as the kidneys may not be able to effectively remove it from the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for patients with kidney disease as it can lead to fluid retention and high blood pressure. Restricting protein intake is important in later stages of kidney disease, but for pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, protein intake should be individualized based on the patient's condition. Limiting potassium-rich foods is more relevant for patients with advanced kidney disease or those on dialysis, as impaired kidney function can lead to high potassium levels in the blood.

3. A patient reports abdominal cramping after enema administration. What action should the nurse take to relieve the discomfort?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to relieve abdominal cramping after enema administration is to lower the height of the solution container. This adjustment slows down the flow rate of the enema solution, which can help reduce discomfort by decreasing the pressure on the patient's abdomen. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) would exacerbate the cramping by introducing more solution quickly. Removing the enema tubing (Choice C) is not necessary to address the cramping, and stopping the procedure (Choice D) may not be needed if adjusting the height of the solution container can resolve the issue.

4. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in HIV management. While white blood cell count, serum albumin levels, and hemoglobin levels are important, they do not directly reflect the immune status and progression of HIV as the CD4 T-cell count does.

5. What are the early signs of compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These signs are typical early indicators of compartment syndrome, suggesting compromised circulation. Choice B, localized redness and swelling, can be seen in conditions like cellulitis but are not specific to compartment syndrome. Choice C, fever and infection, are not characteristic early signs of compartment syndrome. Choice D, loss of sensation in the affected area, is more indicative of nerve damage rather than being one of the early signs of compartment syndrome.

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