a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease which of the following diets should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A patient with chronic kidney disease may require dietary restrictions. Which of the following diets should the healthcare provider prescribe?

A. Low sodium diet
B. Potassium restricted diet
C. High phosphorus diet
D. High protein diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease often require a potassium-restricted diet to help manage their electrolyte levels. Excessive potassium intake can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. While monitoring sodium intake is also important for these patients, a low sodium diet is not specifically indicated in the question. High phosphorus diet and high protein diet are not recommended for individuals with chronic kidney disease as they can further stress the kidneys and worsen the condition.

2. What lab value is a priority in monitoring a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. Hemoglobin levels
C. Serum albumin levels
D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This value guides the initiation of prophylaxis for infections and the timing of antiretroviral therapy initiation. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in monitoring patients with HIV. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess for anemia, serum albumin levels reflect nutritional status, and white blood cell count is more generalized and may not specifically indicate the severity of immunocompromise in HIV patients.

3. What medication should be given first to a patient experiencing wheezing and coughing due to an allergic reaction?

A. Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer
B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
C. Aminophylline IV
D. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer. Albuterol is a bronchodilator that helps relieve wheezing and coughing by opening up the airways, making it the first-line treatment for allergic reactions presenting with these symptoms. Cromolyn and aminophylline are not typically used as first-line treatments for acute allergic reactions with wheezing and coughing. Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, may be beneficial for inflammation in the setting of an allergic reaction but is not the initial medication of choice to address wheezing and coughing.

4. A patient is receiving discharge instructions for GERD. Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?

A. I should take my medication with orange juice.
B. Having a bedtime snack will prevent heartburn.
C. I will lie down after meals.
D. I will limit activities that require bending at the waist.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Patients with GERD should avoid activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as bending at the waist, as this can lead to reflux. Choice A is incorrect because medications for GERD are usually taken with water, not citrus juices. Choice B is incorrect as having a bedtime snack can worsen GERD symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because lying down after meals can also exacerbate reflux due to the effects of gravity.

5. What ECG changes are associated with hyperkalemia?

A. Flattened T waves
B. ST depression
C. Prominent U waves
D. Elevated ST segments

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is known to cause ST depression on an ECG. Flattened T waves are more commonly seen in hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia. Elevated ST segments are not typical findings in hyperkalemia.