ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A patient with chronic kidney disease may require dietary restrictions. Which of the following diets should the healthcare provider prescribe?
- A. Low sodium diet
- B. Potassium restricted diet
- C. High phosphorus diet
- D. High protein diet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease often require a potassium-restricted diet to help manage their electrolyte levels. Excessive potassium intake can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. While monitoring sodium intake is also important for these patients, a low sodium diet is not specifically indicated in the question. High phosphorus diet and high protein diet are not recommended for individuals with chronic kidney disease as they can further stress the kidneys and worsen the condition.
2. A nurse administers insulin for a misread glucose level. What should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Monitor for hypoglycemia
- B. Monitor for hyperglycemia
- C. Monitor for hyperkalemia
- D. Document the incident
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a nurse administers insulin for a misread glucose level, they should monitor for hypoglycemia. Insulin lowers blood sugar levels, so the patient may experience hypoglycemia if given insulin unnecessarily. Monitoring for hypoglycemia involves observing for symptoms such as shakiness, sweating, dizziness, confusion, and palpitations. Choices B and C are incorrect because administering insulin for a misread glucose level would lower blood sugar levels, resulting in hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia or hyperkalemia. Choice D is not the immediate priority; the focus should be on patient safety and monitoring for potential adverse effects of the unnecessary insulin.
3. What is the first medication to give to a patient with an allergic reaction causing wheezing?
- A. Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer
- B. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
- C. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
- D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer. Albuterol is a fast-acting bronchodilator that helps relieve wheezing by relaxing the muscles in the airways, making it the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by bronchospasms in allergic reactions. Methylprednisolone (Choice B) is a corticosteroid used for its anti-inflammatory properties and is typically given after bronchodilators. Cromolyn (Choice C) is a mast cell stabilizer that is used for the prevention of asthma symptoms, not for immediate relief. Aminophylline (Choice D) is a bronchodilator that is less commonly used nowadays due to its narrow therapeutic window and potential for toxicity.
4. What ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. ST depression
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Elevated ST segments
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct ECG change associated with hyperkalemia is ST depression. Hyperkalemia typically presents with ECG changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and finally, ST segment depression. Flattened T waves are more commonly associated with hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are seen in hypokalemia as well. Elevated ST segments are not a typical ECG finding in hyperkalemia.
5. What ECG changes are seen in hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves on the ECG
- B. Elevated ST segments on the ECG
- C. Widened QRS complex
- D. Prominent U waves on the ECG
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on the ECG. Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Choice B, Elevated ST segments, is not typically seen in hypokalemia but can be a sign of myocardial infarction. Choice C, Widened QRS complex, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia. Choice D, Prominent U waves, is typically associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are considered a more specific and early sign.
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