ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. What is the initial action a healthcare provider should take for a patient with chest pain?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer nitroglycerin
- C. Administer morphine
- D. Prepare for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial action for a patient with chest pain is to administer oxygen. Chest pain can be caused by insufficient oxygenation, and providing oxygen helps alleviate the pain by increasing oxygen levels in the blood. Administering nitroglycerin or morphine may be appropriate based on the underlying cause of the chest pain, but oxygen should be given first to ensure the patient's oxygen supply is adequate. Surgery is not typically the initial intervention for chest pain.
2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Dry, cracked lips.
- B. Red, swollen gums.
- C. White patches on the tongue.
- D. Pale, dry mouth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: White patches on the tongue are a sign of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of chemotherapy. This fungal infection can result in the development of white patches on the tongue. Dry, cracked lips (choice A) are more indicative of dehydration or lack of moisture. Red, swollen gums (choice B) may be a sign of gingivitis or periodontal disease. Pale, dry mouth (choice D) is not typically associated with mouth sores from chemotherapy.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary modifications. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. I will limit my protein intake to prevent further kidney damage.
- C. I will avoid consuming foods high in phosphorus.
- D. I will increase my intake of dairy products to support kidney function.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting protein intake is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease as it helps prevent further kidney damage. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (choice A) is not recommended for clients with kidney disease as high potassium levels can be harmful. Avoiding foods high in phosphorus (choice C) is important, but limiting protein intake is a higher priority. Increasing dairy product intake (choice D) is not ideal for clients with kidney disease as they may need to monitor their phosphorus intake from such foods.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased urine output.
- B. Hyperactive reflexes.
- C. Hypoactive bowel sounds.
- D. Facial weakness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Facial weakness is a common finding in clients with Guillain-Barré syndrome due to muscle weakness. While increased urine output is not typically associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome, hyperactive reflexes are more indicative of conditions like hyperthyroidism or spinal cord injury. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not a classic finding in Guillain-Barré syndrome, making it an incorrect choice.
5. A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation is being taught about nutrition during pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should consume 1,200 calories per day.
- B. I should increase my daily intake of folic acid.
- C. I should drink 2 liters of water each day.
- D. I should limit my intake of iron-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increasing folic acid intake is crucial during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects. Option A is incorrect because calorie requirements during pregnancy vary and are generally higher than 1,200 calories per day. Option C is not specific to pregnancy nutrition teaching, although hydration is important. Option D is incorrect as iron-rich foods are typically recommended during pregnancy to prevent anemia.
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