Nursing Elites

1. What is the COMMZ level hospital whose principal mission is to treat and rehabilitate those patients who can return to duty within the stated theater evacuation policy?

• A. FSB
• B. CSH
• C. GH
• D. FH

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: GH (General Hospital). General Hospitals have the principal mission of treating and rehabilitating patients who can return to duty within the theater evacuation policy. FSB (Forward Surgical Hospital), CSH (Combat Support Hospital), and FH (Field Hospital) do not focus on treating and rehabilitating patients for duty within the theater evacuation policy, making them incorrect choices.

2. Where do most peptic ulcers occur?

• A. Esophagus
• B. Stomach
• C. Duodenum
• D. Jejunum

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Most peptic ulcers occur in the duodenum, particularly in cases of duodenal ulcers. The correct answer is the duodenum because it is the most common site for peptic ulcers to develop. Peptic ulcers rarely occur in the esophagus and jejunum, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.

3. The nurse supervises care of a client in Buck’s traction. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)

• A. The nurse removes the foam boot three times per day to inspect the skin
• B. The staff turn the client to the unaffected side
• C. The staff turn the client to the unaffected side and the nurse asks the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg
• D. The nurse asks the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Turning the client to the unaffected side helps prevent complications such as pressure ulcers. Dorsiflexion of the foot on the affected leg helps maintain proper alignment and prevent foot drop. The incorrect choices are A and D. Removing the foam boot multiple times per day can disrupt traction, and asking the client to dorsiflex the foot may not be appropriate without ensuring proper alignment and direction from the healthcare provider.

4. The two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug-nutrient interactions are:

• A. Physician and nurse
• B. Physician and pharmacist
• C. Nurse and clinical dietitian
• D. Clinical dietitian and pharmacist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clinical dietitians and pharmacists work together to manage drug-nutrient interactions. They have the expertise to understand how medications and nutrients can interact in the body, potentially affecting the effectiveness of treatment. Physicians and nurses may be involved in patient care, but when it comes to monitoring drug-nutrient interactions, the specialized knowledge of clinical dietitians and pharmacists is crucial. Nurses and physicians typically focus more on administering medications and managing overall patient care, rather than the specific interactions between drugs and nutrients.

5. The nurse is caring for a client whose religious background is Seventh Day Adventist (Church of GOD). Which nursing action(s) are most appropriate in terms of providing for the dietary needs of this client? Select all that apply.

• A. Providing snacks between meals
• B. Excluding caffeine and pork from the client's diet
• C. Removing coffee from the breakfast tray
• D. Ensuring that there is no pork on the dinner tray

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Seventh Day Adventists typically avoid caffeine and pork due to religious dietary restrictions. Providing snacks between meals (choice A) is not specifically related to the dietary needs of this client. While removing coffee from the breakfast tray (choice C) aligns with the client's dietary restrictions, ensuring no pork on the dinner tray (choice D) is redundant as it is already covered in the correct answer. Therefore, choices C and D are not necessary to include as separate options.

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