which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct outcome for a client diagnosed with fluid volume excess is the absence of adventitious breath sounds. This indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a crucial sign in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because voiding a specific amount of urine, having elastic skin turgor, and a serum creatinine level do not directly relate to managing fluid volume excess.

2. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A consultation with a Rapid Response Team (RRT) is most appropriate for the 45-year-old client described in Choice A. This client is 2 years post kidney transplant, presenting with no urine output for 6 hours, a temperature of 101.4°F, heart rate of 98 beats per minute, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 88/72 mm Hg, along with restlessness. These clinical signs are indicative of possible acute renal failure and sepsis, requiring immediate intervention by the rapid response team. Choices B, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency and severity of symptoms as the client in Choice A, making them less appropriate for consultation with the RRT.

3. Which intervention should the nurse implement for the client who has an ileal conduit?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with an ileal conduit is to report to the healthcare provider any decrease in urinary output. A decrease in urinary output can be indicative of a blockage or other complication, necessitating immediate attention. Choice A is incorrect because pouching the stoma with a margin around it is not directly related to managing complications. Choice B is incorrect as referring the client to an ostomy association may be beneficial for education but is not the immediate action needed for decreased urinary output. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring for infection, although important, is not the priority when dealing with a potential complication like decreased urinary output.

4. An important part of nutrition therapy for patients with cystic fibrosis is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy to help digestion. In cystic fibrosis, pancreatic insufficiency leads to the malabsorption of nutrients, making it essential for patients to take pancreatic enzymes to aid in digestion. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because a low-fat diet may not provide adequate nutrition for cystic fibrosis patients, a low-sodium diet is not the primary focus of nutrition therapy in cystic fibrosis, and a high-fiber diet may exacerbate gastrointestinal symptoms due to malabsorption.

5. The nurse prepares to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a newborn with a diagnosis of heart failure and notes that the apical rate is 140 beats per minute. Which nursing action is appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the digoxin. An apical rate of 140 bpm is within the normal range for a newborn. Digoxin is commonly prescribed for heart failure in newborns to help improve cardiac function. Holding the medication or notifying the healthcare provider is not necessary as the heart rate is normal for a newborn. Rechecking the apical rate in 1 hour is not needed since the heart rate is within the expected range.

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