Nursing Elites

1. During synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated, and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Wait until the machine discharges
• B. Shout “all clear” and don’t touch the bed
• C. Make sure the client is all right
• D. Increase the joules and re-discharge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after the machine is activated during synchronized cardioversion is to shout “all clear” and ensure that no one is touching the client or the bed to prevent them from being shocked. This step is crucial for the safety of everyone present during the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting without confirming safety, focusing on the client's condition only, or increasing joules without safety precautions can lead to potential harm or injury.

2. The client with peripheral venous disease is scheduled to go to the whirlpool for a dressing change. Which is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Escort the client to the physical therapy department
• B. Medicate the client 30 minutes before going to the whirlpool
• C. Obtain the sterile dressing supplies for the client
• D. Assist the client to the bathroom prior to the treatment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pain management is essential before the procedure to ensure the client’s comfort and cooperation during the dressing change. Escorting the client to the physical therapy department (choice A) is not the priority at this time. While obtaining sterile dressing supplies (choice C) is important, ensuring pain management takes precedence. Assisting the client to the bathroom (choice D) is not directly related to the priority intervention of pain management before the whirlpool treatment.

3. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the urine for bright-red bleeding
• B. Evaluate the calorie count of the 500-mg protein diet
• C. Assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema
• D. Monitor for a high serum albumin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client’s sacrum for dependent edema is crucial in the care plan for nephritic syndrome as it is common due to protein loss. Dependent edema occurs as a result of decreased oncotic pressure from protein loss in the urine. Monitoring urine for bright-red bleeding (choice A) is more relevant to conditions like glomerulonephritis. Evaluating calorie count or protein intake (choice B) is important for other conditions but not specifically for nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level (choice D) is not typically part of the immediate care plan for nephritic syndrome.

4. Which of the following is a primary factor that affects blood pressure?

• A. Obesity
• B. Age
• C. Stress
• D. Gender

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Obesity is a primary factor that affects blood pressure. Excess body weight, especially when concentrated around the abdomen, can increase the risk of hypertension (high blood pressure) as it puts extra strain on the heart to pump blood around the body. This can lead to various cardiovascular complications and other health issues. Managing weight through a healthy diet and regular physical activity can help control blood pressure levels. Age, stress, and gender can also influence blood pressure, but obesity has a more direct and significant impact on increasing blood pressure levels compared to the other factors listed.

5. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Know what your soldiers are doing during duty hours'?

• A. Accountability
• B. Personal/professional development
• C. Individual training
• D. Military appearance/physical condition

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Accountability. Accountability involves knowing what individuals are doing during duty hours, ensuring they are responsible and answerable for their actions. Personal/professional development (choice B) refers to enhancing one's skills and knowledge, individual training (choice C) focuses on specific training needs, and military appearance/physical condition (choice D) pertains to the physical presentation and fitness of individuals, not directly related to knowing what they are doing during duty hours.

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