ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. A patient is being treated with amphotericin B. Which of the following statements indicates that the patient has understood the patient teaching?
- A. “The medication may cause diabetes.”
- B. “The medication will cause liver necrosis.”
- C. “The medication may cause kidney damage.”
- D. “The medication will cause pancreatitis.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The medication may cause kidney damage.' Amphotericin B is known for its potential to cause nephrotoxicity, which can manifest as kidney damage. It is crucial for the patient to be aware of this possible adverse effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because amphotericin B is not typically associated with causing diabetes, liver necrosis, or pancreatitis. Therefore, these statements do not reflect an accurate understanding of the medication's side effects.
2. You are an emergency-room nurse caring for a trauma patient. Your patient has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.26, PaCO2 28, HCO3 11 mEq/L. How would you interpret these results?
- A. Respiratory acidosis with no compensation
- B. Metabolic alkalosis with a compensatory alkalosis
- C. Metabolic acidosis with no compensation
- D. Metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: Metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis
Rationale:
3. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely to cause bleeding disorders?
- A. Vitamin A
- B. Vitamin E
- C. Vitamin K
- D. Vitamin D
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting as it plays a crucial role in the activation of clotting factors. Deficiency of Vitamin K can lead to impaired blood clotting, resulting in bleeding disorders. Vitamin A is more associated with vision and skin health, not blood clotting. Vitamin E is known for its antioxidant properties and role in immune function, not specifically related to bleeding disorders. Vitamin D plays a key role in calcium absorption and bone health, but it is not directly linked to blood clotting or bleeding disorders.
4. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?
- A. Intestinal ileus
- B. Neutropenia
- C. Delirium
- D. Hyperthermia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV nitroprusside is administered at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, resulting in mental status changes such as delirium. Monitoring thiocyanate levels during therapy is crucial to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL to prevent this adverse reaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because nitroprusside does not typically cause intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia as adverse reactions.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV bolus of morphine to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Check the client's respiratory rate.
- B. Administer naloxone.
- C. Check the client's pain level.
- D. Assess the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: Checking the client's respiratory rate is the priority before administering morphine because morphine can depress respiration. This action helps the healthcare professional assess the client's baseline respiratory status and detect any potential respiratory depression that may be exacerbated by morphine. Choice B, administering naloxone, is incorrect because naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose and not routinely administered before giving morphine. Choice C, checking the client's pain level, is important but not the first action to take before administering morphine. Choice D, assessing the client's blood pressure, is also important but not the initial priority compared to evaluating respiratory status when preparing to administer morphine.
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