what is the best way to monitor for infection in a patient with a central line
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam RN

1. What is the best way to monitor for infection in a patient with a central line?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Check the central line site daily. Monitoring the central line site daily is crucial in detecting early signs of infection, such as redness, swelling, tenderness, or drainage. By checking the site regularly, healthcare providers can take prompt action to prevent complications. Choice B, monitoring the patient's vital signs, while important in assessing overall health, may not specifically indicate an infection related to the central line. Choice C, checking the central line dressing every other day, may not be frequent enough to catch early signs of infection. Choice D, checking for signs of sepsis, is important but represents a more severe stage of infection and may occur after local signs at the central line site have already manifested.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse is reviewing the monitor tracing and notes early decelerations. What should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Early decelerations are caused by head compression resulting from the fetal head being compressed during contractions. They are considered benign and do not indicate fetal distress. Choice A, fetal hypoxia, is incorrect because early decelerations are not associated with fetal hypoxia. Choice B, abruptio placentae, is incorrect as it is a condition where the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. Choice C, post maturity, is incorrect as it refers to a fetus that remains in the uterus past the due date.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. An INR of 1.8 is below the therapeutic range for a client receiving warfarin, indicating a potential risk of blood clots. This value should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the warfarin dosage. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the effectiveness or safety of warfarin therapy in this scenario, making them less urgent to report.

4. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a therapeutic effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clear lung sounds. Clear lung sounds indicate a therapeutic effect of furosemide, as the medication helps reduce fluid overload in heart failure. Choice A, increased shortness of breath, is incorrect as furosemide is used to relieve symptoms like shortness of breath. Choice B, weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb), is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid retention leading to weight loss. Choice D, bounding pulse, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact the pulse rate.

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