ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Take this medication with a full glass of water.
- D. Take this medication with a full glass of water.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients taking clopidogrel should take the medication with a full glass of water to prevent gastrointestinal irritation. Choice A is incorrect because there is no specific recommendation to avoid foods high in potassium with clopidogrel. Choice B is unrelated to the medication's administration. Choice D is a duplication of choice C, providing no additional information.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 80/min
- B. White blood cell count of 9,000/mm3
- C. Temperature of 37.8°C (100°F)
- D. Blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) should be reported to the provider as it can indicate infection, a common postoperative complication. A normal heart rate of 80/min (Choice A), white blood cell count of 9,000/mm3 (Choice B), and blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg (Choice D) are within normal ranges and do not necessarily indicate a complication postoperatively.
3. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT levels
- B. Monitor platelet count
- C. Monitor INR levels
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL
- B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- C. Serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L
- D. Serum albumin level of 3.8 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is below the normal range and indicates hypokalemia, which should be reported to the provider. Hypokalemia can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. A blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL is slightly elevated but not critically high. A serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L is within the normal range. A serum albumin level of 3.8 g/dL is also within the normal range.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?
- A. Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dL
- B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
- D. Stridor
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction and is the priority finding to report following a thyroidectomy. In this situation, airway compromise is a critical concern that requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. While calcium level (Choice A) and serum sodium level (Choice B) are important assessments post-thyroidectomy, they do not represent an immediate threat to the client's airway. A respiratory rate of 18/min (Choice C) falls within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate risk to the client's airway compared to the presence of stridor.
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