ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Monitor intake and output
- C. Monitor blood pressure
- D. Check for edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Daily weight monitoring is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients receiving diuretics. Monitoring daily weight allows healthcare providers to track changes in fluid status more precisely. While monitoring intake and output (choice B) is essential, it may not provide a comprehensive picture of overall fluid balance. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is important but may not directly reflect fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice D) is useful but may not be as sensitive as daily weight monitoring in assessing fluid balance.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
- B. Heart rate of 88/min
- C. Respiratory rate of 20/min
- D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F) is slightly elevated, indicating a possible infection or inflammatory response, which should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client postoperative, so they do not require immediate reporting. Elevated temperature can be a sign of infection or other complications, making it a priority for reporting and further assessment.
3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with a meal.
- B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.
- D. Limit your intake of calcium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is unrelated to furosemide therapy. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to limit calcium-rich foods while taking furosemide.
4. What is the appropriate diet for a patient with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Low protein diet
- B. High protein diet
- C. Low sodium diet
- D. Low potassium diet
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A low protein diet is the appropriate choice for a patient with chronic kidney disease because it helps to reduce the buildup of waste products in the body, which the kidneys may struggle to filter out. High protein diets can put extra strain on the kidneys by increasing the workload to eliminate the byproducts of protein metabolism. While low sodium and low potassium diets can also be important for managing certain aspects of kidney disease, the primary focus should be on controlling protein intake to lessen the burden on the kidneys.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Diarrhea.
- B. Urinary retention.
- C. Hypotension.
- D. Bradycardia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hypotension is a common adverse effect of morphine due to its vasodilatory properties. It can lead to a drop in blood pressure, which should be closely monitored during administration. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Urinary retention (Choice B) is a side effect of morphine due to its impact on the bladder muscles, but it is not classified as an adverse effect. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of morphine; instead, it tends to cause tachycardia.
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