Nursing Elites

1. A client is being taught about patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which statement should be included in the teaching?

• A. The PCA will deliver a double dose of medication when you push the button twice.
• B. Continuous PCA infusion is designed to allow fluctuating plasma medication levels.
• C. You should push the button before physical activity to allow maximum pain control.
• D. You can adjust the amount of pain medication you receive by pushing on the keypad.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching about PCA is that the client can adjust the amount of pain medication they receive by pushing on the keypad. This empowers the client to control their pain management effectively. Choice A is incorrect because PCA systems are programmed to prevent double dosing when the button is pressed multiple times in quick succession. Choice B is incorrect as continuous PCA infusion aims to maintain a steady plasma medication level. Choice C is incorrect because it is not necessary to push the button before physical activity to ensure maximum pain control; the client should use the PCA as needed for pain relief.

2. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

• A. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving monitoring.
• B. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
• C. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
• D. A client who has diabetes and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8%.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a new onset of tachypnea can indicate a respiratory complication, which requires immediate assessment. Sinus arrhythmia, epidural analgesia with weakness, and a hemoglobin A1C level of 6.8% in a client with diabetes do not pose immediate life-threatening concerns that require urgent assessment compared to the potential respiratory issues associated with tachypnea.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg
• B. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
• C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a high-protein diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Almonds
• B. Cheddar cheese
• C. Chicken breast
• D. Pasta

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chicken breast is an excellent choice for a high-protein diet as it is a lean source of protein. Almonds, while a good source of protein, also contain high amounts of fat. Cheddar cheese is high in protein but also high in saturated fat. Pasta is not a significant source of protein compared to chicken breast.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Constipation.
• B. Tachycardia.
• C. Visual disturbances.
• D. Hypertension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Visual disturbances, such as blurred or yellow vision, are common signs of digoxin toxicity. While constipation (Choice A) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity, tachycardia (Choice B) and hypertension (Choice D) are not characteristic manifestations of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is visual disturbances (Choice C).

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