a nurse is reviewing the monitor tracing of a client in labor and notes late decelerations which of the following interventions should the nurse perfo
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. While reviewing the monitor tracing of a client in labor, a nurse notes late decelerations. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Repositioning the client onto her left side is the appropriate intervention when late decelerations are noted on the monitor tracing. This action helps increase uteroplacental blood flow by relieving pressure on the vena cava and aorta, improving fetal oxygenation. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be indicated for variable decelerations, not late decelerations. Administering an amnioinfusion is not the primary intervention for late decelerations. Providing reassurance to the client is important but addressing the underlying cause of late decelerations takes precedence.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube is to flush the tube with 10 mL of water after feeding. This helps maintain tube patency and prevent clogging. Choice A, checking for residual feeding contents, is not the immediate action to take before administering the feeding. Choice B, administering the feeding through a large-bore syringe, is not the recommended method for administering enteral feedings. Choice D, administering the feeding at room temperature, is important but not the immediate action related to tube maintenance.

3. A client who has a new prescription for lisinopril is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril can increase potassium levels, so clients should avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because lisinopril can lead to hyperkalemia, so increasing potassium-rich foods is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril can cause increased urination, so fluid intake should not be limited.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is a common concern in patients receiving loop diuretics?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia (Choice C). Loop diuretics can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a common concern with loop diuretic therapy and necessitates regular monitoring. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with loop diuretics but with conditions like renal failure. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is more common with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a typical concern with loop diuretic use.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients should eat a snack when their blood glucose level is low, typically below 70-100 mg/dL, not when it is high. Eating a snack when the blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL can exacerbate hyperglycemia. Choice A is correct as checking blood glucose levels regularly is important in managing diabetes. Choice C is also correct as adherence to prescribed insulin therapy is crucial. Choice D is incorrect as physical activity can help lower blood glucose levels, especially when they are above the target range.

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