a nurse is assessing a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity and should be reported immediately. Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia, but toxicity can lead to serious complications, including respiratory depression and loss of deep-tendon reflexes. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, so they do not require immediate reporting.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which of the following items should the nurse offer to the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Chicken broth. A clear liquid diet includes clear fluids and foods that are liquid at room temperature. Chicken broth is allowed on a clear liquid diet as it is a clear liquid, while tomato soup, apple juice, and cranberry juice are not clear liquids. Tomato soup is a thicker substance and not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Apple juice and cranberry juice are also not clear liquids because they contain pulp and are not transparent like broth.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a hypophysectomy for the removal of a pituitary tumor. Which of the following findings requires further assessment by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake could indicate diabetes insipidus, a complication following hypophysectomy. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive urination and extreme thirst due to inadequate levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Options A, B, and C are all expected findings in the immediate postoperative period following a hypophysectomy. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness, blood drainage on the initial dressing is a common finding after surgery, and dry mouth can be a side effect of anesthesia and surgical procedures.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients receiving warfarin. It is crucial to report this finding to the provider before surgery to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustments to prevent excessive bleeding risks. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not directly impact the client's surgery preparation or risk for bleeding, so they do not require immediate reporting.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has acute kidney injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Serum creatinine 3.5 mg/dL.' An elevated serum creatinine level indicates worsening kidney function and impaired renal clearance, which should be reported to the provider promptly. Choice A, 'Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL,' is within the normal range (7-20 mg/dL) and does not indicate acute kidney injury. Choice B, 'Urine output of 45 mL/hr,' is a low urine output but does not directly reflect kidney function decline. Choice D, 'Calcium 9 mg/dL,' is within the normal calcium range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not specifically indicative of acute kidney injury.

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