Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Respiratory rate 16/min.
• B. Blood pressure 118/78 mm Hg.
• C. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr.
• D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity and should be reported immediately. Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia, but toxicity can lead to serious complications, including respiratory depression and loss of deep-tendon reflexes. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, so they do not require immediate reporting.

2. A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 90/min
• B. Temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F)
• C. Serosanguineous wound drainage
• D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 25 mL/hr is a sign of oliguria, which may indicate dehydration or kidney impairment and should be reported. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range (60-100/min) for adults at rest and may be expected postoperatively. A temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F) is within the normal range (36.1-37.2°C or 97-99°F) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a common finding postoperatively and indicates a normal healing process.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. aPTT
• D. INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose as needed. While Prothrombin time (PT) and activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) are also related to coagulation studies, monitoring INR specifically helps in managing warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin, on the other hand, is not typically monitored in relation to warfarin therapy.

4. What is the best method to manage fluid overload in a patient with heart failure?

• A. Administer diuretics
• B. Provide oral fluids
• C. Increase fluid intake
• D. Provide chest physiotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering diuretics is the best method to manage fluid overload in a patient with heart failure. Diuretics help to remove excess fluid from the body by increasing urine output, thus reducing the fluid volume in the bloodstream and tissues. Providing oral fluids (choice B) or increasing fluid intake (choice C) would exacerbate the fluid overload rather than managing it. Chest physiotherapy (choice D) is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure; it is more commonly used for conditions affecting the lungs or airways.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving TPN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

• A. Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours.
• B. Monitor the client's blood glucose every 4 hours.
• C. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
• D. Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.' When caring for a client receiving TPN, it is crucial to maintain aseptic technique to prevent infections. Changing the central line dressing with sterile technique helps reduce the risk of introducing pathogens into the client's system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours, monitoring blood glucose, and monitoring urine output are important aspects of care but are not directly related to preventing infection in clients receiving TPN.

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