ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Respiratory rate 16/min.
- B. Blood pressure 118/78 mm Hg.
- C. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr.
- D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity and should be reported immediately. Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia, but toxicity can lead to serious complications, including respiratory depression and loss of deep-tendon reflexes. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, so they do not require immediate reporting.
2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.
3. How should a healthcare provider care for a patient with a tracheostomy?
- A. Clean the tracheostomy site daily
- B. Change the tracheostomy ties daily
- C. Suction the tracheostomy regularly
- D. Provide humidified oxygen
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Suctioning the tracheostomy regularly is crucial in caring for a patient with a tracheostomy as it helps keep the airway clear of secretions, preventing blockages and potential complications. Cleaning the tracheostomy site daily is important for hygiene but not as critical as regular suctioning. Changing the tracheostomy ties daily may not be necessary unless soiled or loose. Providing humidified oxygen may be part of the care plan but is not as directly related to maintaining the tracheostomy patency as suctioning.
4. What is the appropriate action for a patient experiencing a severe allergic reaction?
- A. Administer epinephrine
- B. Administer antihistamines
- C. Administer corticosteroids
- D. Administer oxygen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for severe allergic reactions as it helps reverse the symptoms rapidly by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways. Antihistamines (Choice B) may help with mild allergic reactions but are not effective for severe cases. Corticosteroids (Choice C) are used to reduce inflammation and are typically not the first-line treatment for acute severe allergic reactions. Administering oxygen (Choice D) may be necessary to support breathing in severe cases, but epinephrine is the primary treatment to reverse the allergic reaction symptoms.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?
- A. Maternal fever.
- B. Fetal anemia.
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
- D. Chorioamnionitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.
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