Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Respiratory rate 16/min.
• B. Blood pressure 118/78 mm Hg.
• C. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr.
• D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity and should be reported immediately. Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia, but toxicity can lead to serious complications, including respiratory depression and loss of deep-tendon reflexes. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, so they do not require immediate reporting.

2. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Reposition the patient
• C. Administer bronchodilators
• D. Administer IV fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer oxygen. In a patient experiencing respiratory distress, ensuring adequate oxygenation is the priority. Administering oxygen helps improve oxygen levels, which is crucial for the patient's well-being. Repositioning the patient, administering bronchodilators, or giving IV fluids are important interventions in certain situations, but when a patient is in respiratory distress, providing oxygen takes precedence over other actions.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. White blood cell count 6,000/mm3
• B. Positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer
• C. Platelet count 220,000/mm3
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer is a significant finding in clients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) as it indicates active disease. This result should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and not specifically indicative of disease activity in SLE. Therefore, they do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client scheduled for a CT scan with contrast media. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as a contraindication to the procedure?

• A. White blood cell count of 6,000/mm³
• B. Urine specific gravity of 1.025
• C. History of asthma
• D. History of allergy to shellfish

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, a history of allergy to shellfish. A known allergy to shellfish is a contraindication for the use of contrast media in a CT scan due to the potential risk of an allergic reaction, which could be severe and life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications to the procedure. A normal white blood cell count, urine specific gravity within the normal range, and a history of asthma do not typically interfere with the administration of contrast media for a CT scan.

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