Nursing Elites

1. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Administer bronchodilators
• C. Administer IV fluids
• D. Provide chest physiotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy is crucial in ensuring that the patient receives an adequate supply of oxygen to meet the body's demands. Administering bronchodilators (Choice B) may be beneficial in specific respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD but may not be the primary intervention in all cases of respiratory distress. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) may be necessary in cases of dehydration or shock but would not directly address respiratory distress. Providing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) can help mobilize secretions in conditions like cystic fibrosis but is not the first-line intervention for respiratory distress.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. This can result in adverse effects such as muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other complications. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not an adverse effect of furosemide but rather an elevated potassium level. Hyperglycemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice D) are not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels and addressing hypokalemia is crucial in clients taking furosemide.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is newly diagnosed with pancreatic cancer and has questions about the disease. To research, the nurse should identify which of the following electronic databases has the most comprehensive collection of nursing articles?

• A. MEDLINE
• B. CINAHL
• C. ProQuest
• D. Health Source

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, CINAHL. CINAHL is specifically dedicated to nursing and allied health literature, making it the most appropriate database for nursing articles and research. It provides a comprehensive collection of nursing-related articles, journals, and research studies, which are essential for evidence-based practice. MEDLINE, on the other hand, is a valuable resource for medical literature but is not as nursing-focused as CINAHL. ProQuest and Health Source cover a wider range of subjects beyond nursing, so they are not as comprehensive when it comes to nursing-specific articles and research. Therefore, for the nurse looking to access a database with a vast collection of nursing articles, CINAHL is the most suitable option.

4. What is the initial nursing action for a patient presenting with chest pain?

• A. Administer aspirin
• B. Reposition the patient
• C. Provide pain relief
• D. Prepare for surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial nursing action for a patient presenting with chest pain is to administer aspirin. Aspirin helps reduce the risk of further clot formation in patients experiencing chest pain, as it has antiplatelet effects. Repositioning the patient, providing pain relief, or preparing for surgery are not the first-line interventions for chest pain. Repositioning the patient may be necessary to ensure comfort and safety, pain relief can be provided after further assessment and diagnostic tests, and preparing for surgery would only be considered after a thorough evaluation and confirmation of the need for surgical intervention.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

Similar Questions