ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. What is the appropriate action when a patient experiences an allergic reaction to a medication?
- A. Administer epinephrine
- B. Discontinue the medication
- C. Administer corticosteroids
- D. Administer antihistamines
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for a severe allergic reaction as it helps to constrict blood vessels, increase heart rate, and open airways, thereby improving breathing and circulation. Discontinuing the medication may not be sufficient to manage a severe allergic reaction as the allergen is already in the patient's system. Corticosteroids and antihistamines can be considered as complementary treatments but are not the primary immediate intervention required for a severe allergic reaction.
2. Which type of fatty acid has carbon atoms connected by two or more double bonds?
- A. Saturated fatty acids
- B. Monounsaturated fatty acids
- C. Trans fatty acids
- D. Polyunsaturated fatty acids
Correct answer: D. Polyunsaturated fatty acids
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Polyunsaturated fatty acids. Polyunsaturated fatty acids have two or more double bonds in their carbon chains, making them less stable and more prone to oxidation. This characteristic distinguishes them from saturated fatty acids (Choice A), which have single bonds between carbon atoms providing stability. Monounsaturated fatty acids (Choice B) contain only one double bond, and trans fatty acids (Choice C) can have varying numbers of double bonds but are not specifically defined by having two or more double bonds.
3. A nurse manager is planning client assignments for the day. Which client should the nurse assign to the nursing assistant?
- A. A client who needs help ambulating.
- B. A client who requires complex wound care.
- C. A client who needs intravenous antibiotics.
- D. A client who is NPO and requires IV hydration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because ambulating a client is a non-invasive task that can be safely and effectively performed by a nursing assistant. Choice B is incorrect as complex wound care requires specialized skills usually performed by licensed nurses. Choice C involves administering intravenous antibiotics, which also requires a higher level of training and assessment skills than a nursing assistant possesses. Choice D, involving a client who is NPO and requires IV hydration, may involve further assessments and monitoring that are beyond the scope of a nursing assistant.
4. A client has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder, and a nurse is providing care. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote the client's safety?
- A. Implement a no-harm contract with the client.
- B. Monitor the client closely for signs of self-harm.
- C. Encourage the client to participate in recreational activities.
- D. Encourage the client to maintain a structured daily routine.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Implementing a no-harm contract is a crucial intervention for clients with borderline personality disorder as it helps establish an agreement between the client and the healthcare provider to abstain from self-harming behaviors. This contract aims to promote the client's safety by enhancing awareness and providing a structured approach in managing impulses and emotions.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in patients on furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to furosemide therapy; therefore, they are incorrect choices.
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