Nursing Elites

1. What is the appropriate action when a patient experiences an allergic reaction to a medication?

• A. Administer epinephrine
• B. Discontinue the medication
• C. Administer corticosteroids
• D. Administer antihistamines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for a severe allergic reaction as it helps to constrict blood vessels, increase heart rate, and open airways, thereby improving breathing and circulation. Discontinuing the medication may not be sufficient to manage a severe allergic reaction as the allergen is already in the patient's system. Corticosteroids and antihistamines can be considered as complementary treatments but are not the primary immediate intervention required for a severe allergic reaction.

2. A client has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor for as a potential adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Increased heart rate.
• B. Weight loss.
• C. Hyperthermia.
• D. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An increased heart rate is a common adverse effect of levothyroxine due to its role in boosting metabolism. Choice B, weight loss, is actually a therapeutic effect of levothyroxine as it helps in managing hypothyroidism by increasing the metabolic rate. Hyperthermia (Choice C) is not a typical adverse effect of levothyroxine. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes (Choice D) are not associated with levothyroxine use.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to promote airway clearance?

• A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• B. Suction the client every 2 hours.
• C. Perform chest physiotherapy every 8 hours.
• D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake is essential to promote airway clearance in pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps to thin respiratory secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Suctioning every 2 hours may be too frequent and can lead to airway trauma and irritation. Chest physiotherapy is not typically indicated for pneumonia unless there are specific complications. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary to maintain oxygen saturation but does not directly promote airway clearance.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
• C. Respiratory rate of 12/min
• D. Heart rate of 88/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 12/min may indicate respiratory depression, a potential side effect of opioid analgesics. Respiratory depression can be a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but a low respiratory rate is a more critical finding that warrants immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

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