ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL
- B. Serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L
- C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Platelet count of 250,000/mm³
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a complication that should be reported in clients receiving TPN. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac and neuromuscular complications. The other options are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns for a client receiving TPN. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL, serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, and platelet count of 250,000/mm³ are all considered normal values and do not require immediate intervention.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Productive cough with green sputum
- B. Temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F)
- C. Crackles in the lung bases
- D. Oxygen saturation of 95%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with pneumonia, crackles in the lung bases can indicate fluid accumulation, worsening of the condition, or development of complications such as pulmonary edema. This finding should be reported to the provider promptly for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are common in clients with pneumonia and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms or vital sign abnormalities.
3. A client is receiving opioid analgesics for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the priority?
- A. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
- B. Check the client's urinary output.
- C. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
- D. Assess the client's pain level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioid analgesics, the priority assessment is monitoring respiratory rate. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, so it is crucial to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress promptly. Checking the client's blood pressure (Choice A) and urinary output (Choice B) are important assessments too, but they are not the priority when compared to ensuring adequate respiratory function. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice D) is essential for overall care but is not the priority assessment when the client is on opioids, as respiratory status takes precedence.
4. What is the appropriate diet for a patient with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Low protein diet
- B. High protein diet
- C. Low sodium diet
- D. Low potassium diet
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A low protein diet is the appropriate choice for a patient with chronic kidney disease because it helps to reduce the buildup of waste products in the body, which the kidneys may struggle to filter out. High protein diets can put extra strain on the kidneys by increasing the workload to eliminate the byproducts of protein metabolism. While low sodium and low potassium diets can also be important for managing certain aspects of kidney disease, the primary focus should be on controlling protein intake to lessen the burden on the kidneys.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes mellitus and is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common sign of hypoglycemia due to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. Tachycardia (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia. Dry mouth (choice B) is not a typical finding in hypoglycemia but may be seen in hyperglycemia. Increased appetite (choice D) is not a typical sign of hypoglycemia and is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia.
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