a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn which of the following findings should the nur
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a complication that should be reported in clients receiving TPN. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac and neuromuscular complications. The other options are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns for a client receiving TPN. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL, serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, and platelet count of 250,000/mm³ are all considered normal values and do not require immediate intervention.

2. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic, should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent hypokalemia. Option A is incorrect because weight monitoring is crucial for furosemide due to fluid loss. Option C is incorrect as furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option D is incorrect because furosemide is best taken on an empty stomach for better absorption.

3. A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease, the nurse should maintain the client on a low-residue diet. This diet helps to minimize bowel irritation by reducing the volume and frequency of stools. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Encouraging the client to increase dietary fiber (Choice A) and eat a high-fiber diet (Choice D) can worsen symptoms and aggravate bowel inflammation in Crohn's disease. Providing the client with frequent high-calorie snacks (Choice C) may not be appropriate during an exacerbation since high-fat foods can be harder to digest and may exacerbate symptoms.

4. A client practicing Orthodox Judaism informs the nurse they are observing the Passover holiday. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the Passover holiday, individuals practicing Orthodox Judaism follow dietary restrictions that include consuming unleavened bread. This symbolizes the haste with which the Israelites left Egypt and the lack of time for bread to rise. Providing chicken with cream sauce (Choice A) is not aligned with Passover dietary restrictions. Avoiding serving fish with fins and scales (Choice B) is a general dietary law in Judaism but not specific to Passover. Similarly, avoiding foods containing lamb (Choice D) is not a specific requirement during Passover.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an external fetal monitor in place. The nurse observes late decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the cause of late decelerations?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations in the fetal heart rate are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, which results from inadequate blood flow to the placenta. This leads to reduced oxygen and nutrients reaching the fetus during contractions. Choice A, fetal head compression, does not typically cause late decelerations but can result in variable decelerations. Choice C, umbilical cord compression, usually leads to variable decelerations. Choice D, fetal hypoxia, is a broad term and not the direct cause of late decelerations, which are specifically linked to uteroplacental insufficiency.

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