Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL
• B. Serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L
• C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Platelet count of 250,000/mm³

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a complication that should be reported in clients receiving TPN. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac and neuromuscular complications. The other options are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns for a client receiving TPN. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL, serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, and platelet count of 250,000/mm³ are all considered normal values and do not require immediate intervention.

2. What is the best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Low-protein diet
• B. High-protein diet
• C. Low-sodium diet
• D. High-sodium diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a low-sodium diet. Patients with chronic kidney disease are often advised to follow a low-sodium diet to help manage fluid retention. Excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup in the body, causing complications for individuals with kidney issues. Choices A and B are incorrect because while protein intake may need to be monitored in kidney disease, the primary focus is typically on sodium restriction. Choice D is incorrect as a high-sodium diet would exacerbate fluid retention in patients with chronic kidney disease.

3. A client with a new diagnosis of celiac disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I can still have oatmeal for breakfast.
• B. I need to avoid foods that contain gluten.
• C. I can have rye toast with my eggs.
• D. I can continue to eat foods made from barley.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because clients with celiac disease should avoid gluten, which is found in foods like rye and barley. Choice A is incorrect because oatmeal may contain gluten unless specified gluten-free. Choice C is incorrect as rye contains gluten. Choice D is incorrect as barley contains gluten.

4. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT levels
• B. Monitor platelet count
• C. Monitor INR levels
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

5. What is the appropriate action for a patient experiencing chest pain?

• A. Administer aspirin
• B. Reposition the patient
• C. Check oxygen saturation
• D. Prepare for surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a patient experiencing chest pain is to administer aspirin. Aspirin helps reduce the risk of clot formation in patients with chest pain, as it has antiplatelet effects. Repositioning the patient may not address the underlying cause of the chest pain. Checking oxygen saturation is important but not the initial priority in this scenario. Surgery is not typically the first-line treatment for chest pain without further assessment and diagnostic procedures.

Similar Questions