a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn which of the following findings should the nur
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a complication that should be reported in clients receiving TPN. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac and neuromuscular complications. The other options are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns for a client receiving TPN. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL, serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, and platelet count of 250,000/mm³ are all considered normal values and do not require immediate intervention.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Productive cough with clear sputum.' Clients with COPD often have a chronic productive cough with thick, often purulent sputum. This sputum can be white, yellow, green, or clear. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Oxygen saturation may decrease with exertion in COPD due to impaired gas exchange. Pursed-lip breathing is used to control dyspnea, not directly related to increased saturation with exercise. Clubbing of the fingers is typically seen in conditions such as cyanotic heart disease or lung cancer.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nuchal rigidity is a classic sign of bacterial meningitis and indicates inflammation of the meninges. It is characterized by neck stiffness and pain upon neck flexion. Flaccid paralysis (Choice B) is not typically associated with bacterial meningitis but rather conditions like Guillain-Barre syndrome. Bradycardia (Choice C) and hypothermia (Choice D) are not commonly seen in bacterial meningitis; instead, patients may present with fever, tachycardia, and signs of systemic inflammation.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify the effectiveness of the treatment by assessing which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Client-reported improvement in anxiety is an indication of effective treatment for pulmonary embolism. Choice A is incorrect as increased density in all lung fields on a chest x-ray may indicate complications or lack of improvement. Choice C is incorrect as diminished breath sounds auscultated unilaterally may suggest a localized lung issue and not necessarily reflect the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG results provided do not specifically indicate the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism.

5. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient with kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. This method is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients with kidney disease. Daily weight monitoring can detect even small changes in fluid balance, such as fluid retention or loss, which may not be evident through other methods. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is also important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance as it doesn't consider factors like insensible losses. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid retention but may not always be present or may be difficult to assess accurately. Checking urine output (choice D) is important but may not reflect the overall fluid balance status of the patient.

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