a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn which of the following findings should the nur
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a complication that should be reported in clients receiving TPN. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac and neuromuscular complications. The other options are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns for a client receiving TPN. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL, serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, and platelet count of 250,000/mm³ are all considered normal values and do not require immediate intervention.

2. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

3. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling in the hands is a potential sign of worsening preeclampsia, and the client should report this to their provider. Choice A is incorrect since aspirin is not recommended in preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect as calcium intake is not directly related to preventing seizures in preeclampsia. Choice D is incorrect because protein restriction is not the standard management for preventing further kidney damage in preeclampsia.

4. A client is immediately postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following positions should the nurse maintain for the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct position for a client immediately postoperative following a hip arthroplasty is the lateral position with an abduction pillow between the legs. This position helps prevent dislocation of the hip prosthesis and maintains proper alignment of the hip joint. Supine position with legs extended (Choice A) may put stress on the hip joint, Semi-Fowler's position with legs bent (Choice B) may not provide adequate support and alignment, and prone position with legs elevated (Choice D) is not recommended after hip arthroplasty as it can compromise the surgical site and increase the risk of complications.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube and notes continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when continuous bubbling is noted in the water seal chamber of a chest tube is to apply a dressing over the insertion site. Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak, and applying a dressing helps manage this issue by providing a seal. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the drainage system is not appropriate in this situation as it can lead to complications such as tension pneumothorax or inadequate drainage of the pleural space.

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A nurse is planning care for a client who has dementia and is frequently agitated. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
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