a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn which of the following findings should the nur
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a complication that should be reported in clients receiving TPN. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac and neuromuscular complications. The other options are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns for a client receiving TPN. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL, serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, and platelet count of 250,000/mm³ are all considered normal values and do not require immediate intervention.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postpartum and is breastfeeding her newborn. The client asks the nurse to warm up seaweed soup that the client's partner brought for her. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Agreeing to heat up the seaweed soup respects the client's cultural preferences and promotes a positive postpartum experience. Seaweed soup is a traditional food in some cultures, often believed to support recovery and breastfeeding. The nurse's supportive response fosters cultural sensitivity, which is crucial in providing patient-centered care.

3. A healthcare provider is performing a skin assessment for a client and observes several skin lesions. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An irregularly shaped mole is a priority finding to report to the provider as it can be indicative of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Melanoma is a serious condition that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Raised nevus, macule, and vesicle are common skin findings that are typically benign and may not require immediate attention. Therefore, the irregularly shaped mole stands out as the priority due to its association with potential malignancy.

4. What is the best position for a patient in respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best position for a patient in respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and eases breathing by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position (choice B) where the patient's feet are higher than the head is not recommended in respiratory distress as it may cause increased pressure on the chest and reduced lung expansion. The prone position (choice C) lying on the stomach is also not optimal for respiratory distress as it can further compromise breathing. The supine position (choice D) lying flat on the back is not ideal as it may impair breathing by restricting chest expansion.

5. A nurse is teaching at a community health fair about electrical fire prevention. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use three-pronged grounded plugs.' This is important in preventing electrical fires as it provides a grounded connection, reducing the risk of electrical malfunctions. Choice B is incorrect because covering extension cords with a rug can lead to overheating and increase the risk of fire. Choice C is also incorrect as tingling sensations around a cord indicate an electrical hazard, not proper functioning. Choice D is incorrect as pulling the cord to remove a plug can damage the cord, leading to potential electrical dangers.

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