a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn which of the following findings should the nur
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a complication that should be reported in clients receiving TPN. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac and neuromuscular complications. The other options are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns for a client receiving TPN. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL, serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, and platelet count of 250,000/mm³ are all considered normal values and do not require immediate intervention.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with patients on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide use due to its mechanism of action in the kidneys. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not common electrolyte imbalances seen with furosemide use.

3. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the urine, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B) is not typically necessary with furosemide use, as it primarily affects potassium levels. Calcium levels (choice C) and glucose levels (choice D) are not directly impacted by furosemide and require monitoring for other conditions or medications.

4. A client is receiving discharge teaching for a new prescription of warfarin. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients on warfarin therapy need to have their International Normalized Ratio (INR) checked regularly to monitor the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like clotting or bleeding. Option A is incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables can affect INR levels due to their vitamin K content. Option B is incorrect as grapefruit juice is not a significant concern with warfarin. Option D is important for medication adherence but does not specifically address the monitoring aspect required for warfarin therapy.

5. A client has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking digoxin is to notify their provider if they experience visual disturbances. Visual disturbances can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, and prompt notification to the healthcare provider is essential for timely intervention. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Choice C is incorrect because antacids can interfere with the absorption of digoxin. Choice D is incorrect because a heart rate less than 60/min is not a sole reason to avoid taking digoxin; rather, it is important to monitor the heart rate and consult with the healthcare provider if there are concerns.

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