Nursing Elites

1. What is levothyroxine's pharmacologic classification?

• A. Thyroid Preparations
• B. Metabolic Inhibitors
• C. Analgesic
• D. Loop Diuretic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Levothyroxine is classified as a thyroid preparation because it is a synthetic form of the thyroid hormone thyroxine. It is primarily used to treat hypothyroidism by supplementing or replacing the natural thyroid hormones in the body, helping to regulate metabolism and energy levels. Choice B, Metabolic Inhibitors, is incorrect because levothyroxine does not inhibit metabolism but rather helps regulate it. Choice C, Analgesic, is incorrect as levothyroxine is not used for pain relief but for thyroid hormone replacement therapy. Choice D, Loop Diuretic, is also incorrect as loop diuretics are medications that act on the kidneys to increase urine production and are not related to thyroid hormone replacement therapy.

2. A patient on a medical-surgical unit administers a hypnotic medication to an older adult client at 2100. The next morning, the client is drowsy and wants to sleep instead of eating breakfast. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a possible reason for the client's drowsiness?

• A. Reduced cardiac function
• B. First-pass effect
• C. Reduced hepatic function
• D. Increased gastric motility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In older adults, reduced hepatic function can lead to prolonged effects of medications metabolized by the liver. This prolonged effect may result in drowsiness the next morning. Adjusting the dosage of the hypnotic medication may be necessary for this client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Reduced cardiac function (Choice A) is not typically associated with drowsiness due to medication effects. The first-pass effect (Choice B) relates to the initial metabolism of a drug in the liver before reaching systemic circulation, which is not directly linked to drowsiness the next morning. Increased gastric motility (Choice D) does not commonly cause drowsiness as described in the scenario.

3. What is the correct medical term used to describe impaired blood flow in the coronary arteries?

• A. Myocardial infarction
• B. Angina pectoris
• C. Cerebrovascular accident
• D. Coronary heart disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct medical term for impaired blood flow in the coronary arteries is Coronary heart disease. This condition is characterized by a narrowing or blockage of the coronary arteries, leading to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. Myocardial infarction (choice A) refers to a heart attack, which occurs when blood flow to a part of the heart is blocked. Angina pectoris (choice B) is chest pain or discomfort that occurs when the heart muscle doesn't receive enough oxygen-rich blood. Cerebrovascular accident (choice C) is the medical term for a stroke, which occurs when blood flow to a part of the brain is interrupted.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin to a client. The professional should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Nephrotoxicity
• B. Hepatotoxicity
• C. Red Man Syndrome
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse effect of vancomycin characterized by flushing and rash. It is not related to nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, or diarrhea. Monitoring for this reaction allows for prompt intervention to prevent severe complications.

5. A client has a prescription for ceftriaxone. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You may develop a cough while taking this medication.
• B. You should stop taking this medication if you develop a rash.
• C. This medication can be given orally.
• D. This medication may cause your urine to turn yellow.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to discontinue ceftriaxone if a rash develops, as it could indicate an allergic reaction that needs to be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cough development, oral administration, and yellow urine are not typically associated with ceftriaxone use and are not critical information that the nurse needs to emphasize in this scenario.

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