Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority intervention for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome?

• A. Administer nitroglycerin
• B. Get IV access
• C. Auscultate heart sounds
• D. Administer aspirin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the priority intervention for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome as it helps dilate blood vessels, reduce chest pain, and improve blood flow to the heart. This intervention is crucial in managing acute coronary syndrome and should be given promptly. Getting IV access may be necessary, but administering nitroglycerin takes precedence to alleviate symptoms and prevent further heart damage. Auscultating heart sounds and administering aspirin are important aspects of the assessment and treatment plan, but they are not the priority interventions in the acute phase of suspected acute coronary syndrome.

2. What are the expected symptoms of a thrombotic stroke?

• A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
• B. Sudden loss of consciousness
• C. Severe headache and confusion
• D. Loss of sensation in the affected limb

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Gradual loss of function on one side of the body.' In a thrombotic stroke, a clot blocks a cerebral artery, leading to a gradual onset of symptoms such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body. Choice B, 'Sudden loss of consciousness,' is more characteristic of a hemorrhagic stroke. Choice C, 'Severe headache and confusion,' are often associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage rather than thrombotic stroke. Choice D, 'Loss of sensation in the affected limb,' is not a typical symptom pattern for a thrombotic stroke, which usually presents with motor deficits.

3. What are the expected manifestations in a patient experiencing a thrombotic stroke?

• A. Sudden numbness or loss of function on one side of the body
• B. Sudden loss of consciousness and seizure
• C. Gradual onset of difficulty speaking
• D. Loss of sensation in the affected limb

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct manifestation in a patient experiencing a thrombotic stroke is sudden numbness or loss of function on one side of the body. This is due to the blockage of a blood vessel by a clot, leading to a lack of blood flow to a specific part of the brain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Sudden loss of consciousness and seizure are more commonly associated with hemorrhagic strokes. Gradual onset of difficulty speaking is often seen in ischemic strokes affecting language areas, not specifically in thrombotic strokes. Loss of sensation in the affected limb is more indicative of sensory nerve damage rather than the motor deficits seen in thrombotic strokes.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Diazepam IV
• B. Lorazepam PO
• C. Diltiazem IV
• D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.

5. What lab value is a priority in monitoring a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Hemoglobin levels
• C. Serum albumin levels
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This value guides the initiation of prophylaxis for infections and the timing of antiretroviral therapy initiation. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in monitoring patients with HIV. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess for anemia, serum albumin levels reflect nutritional status, and white blood cell count is more generalized and may not specifically indicate the severity of immunocompromise in HIV patients.

Similar Questions