ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet
1. What is the priority intervention for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer nitroglycerin
- B. Get IV access
- C. Auscultate heart sounds
- D. Administer aspirin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the priority intervention for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome as it helps dilate blood vessels, reduce chest pain, and improve blood flow to the heart. This intervention is crucial in managing acute coronary syndrome and should be given promptly. Getting IV access may be necessary, but administering nitroglycerin takes precedence to alleviate symptoms and prevent further heart damage. Auscultating heart sounds and administering aspirin are important aspects of the assessment and treatment plan, but they are not the priority interventions in the acute phase of suspected acute coronary syndrome.
2. What intervention should be done if continuous bubbling is seen in the chest tube water seal chamber?
- A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
- B. Replace the chest tube system
- C. Clamp the chest tube
- D. Continue monitoring the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the appropriate intervention is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This step helps address an air leak in the system, which could compromise its effectiveness. Choice B (Replace the chest tube system) is not the initial step and may be unnecessary if the issue can be resolved by tightening connections. Choice C (Clamp the chest tube) is incorrect as clamping the chest tube could lead to a dangerous increase in pressure within the system. Choice D (Continue monitoring the chest tube) is also not the best immediate action to take when continuous bubbling is present, as prompt intervention is needed to prevent complications.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications should the professional anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the procedure?
- A. Propofol
- B. Pancuronium
- C. Promethazine
- D. Pentoxifylline
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Propofol. Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic medication commonly used for procedures like colonoscopies to induce moderate sedation. Pancuronium (Choice B) is a neuromuscular blocking agent used as a paralyzing agent during surgery, not for sedation. Promethazine (Choice C) is an antihistamine often used for nausea and vomiting, not as an anesthetic. Pentoxifylline (Choice D) is a medication used to improve blood flow and is not indicated for anesthesia.
4. What lab value is a priority in monitoring a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin levels
- C. Serum albumin levels
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This value guides the initiation of prophylaxis for infections and the timing of antiretroviral therapy initiation. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in monitoring patients with HIV. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess for anemia, serum albumin levels reflect nutritional status, and white blood cell count is more generalized and may not specifically indicate the severity of immunocompromise in HIV patients.
5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is starting to take carbidopa/levodopa to treat Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. This medication can cause your urine to turn a dark color.
- B. Expect immediate relief after taking this medication.
- C. Take the medication with a high protein food.
- D. Skip a dose of the medication if you experience dizziness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching is that carbidopa/levodopa can cause the client's urine to turn a dark color, which is a harmless effect. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about this common side effect. Choice B is incorrect because immediate relief is not expected; therapeutic effects may take weeks to months. Choice C is incorrect as carbidopa/levodopa should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect as the client should not skip doses without consulting their healthcare provider, even if they experience dizziness.
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