Nursing Elites

1. What is a serious adverse reaction to penicillin?

• A. Liver Failure
• B. Anaphylaxis
• C. Respiratory Depression
• D. Edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can occur as a serious adverse reaction to penicillin. It is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Liver failure is not a typical adverse reaction to penicillin, respiratory depression is more commonly associated with opioid medications, and edema is not a common severe adverse reaction to penicillin.

2. A client has a new prescription for Clozapine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should have a high-carbohydrate snack between meals and at bedtime.
• B. You are likely to develop hand tremors if you take this medication for a long period of time.
• C. You may experience temporary numbness of your mouth after each dose.
• D. You should have your white blood cell count monitored every week.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clozapine has a risk for fatal agranulocytosis, making weekly monitoring of the client's white blood cell (WBC) count essential to detect any potential issues early. This monitoring helps in managing the risk and ensuring the client's safety while on clozapine.

3. A staff educator is reviewing medication dosages and factors that influence medication metabolism with a group of nurses at an in-service presentation. Which of the following factors should the educator include as a reason to administer lower medication dosages? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Increased renal secretion
• B. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes
• C. Liver failure
• D. Peripheral vascular disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Liver failure impairs metabolism, leading to increased medication concentrations. When liver function is compromised, lower dosages are necessary to prevent adverse effects. Increased renal secretion is not a reason for lower medication dosages, as it primarily affects excretion rather than metabolism. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes would usually require higher dosages to achieve the desired effect. Peripheral vascular disease does not directly impact medication metabolism or dosage requirements.

4. A client is prescribed Bethanechol to treat urinary retention. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Hypertension
• C. Excessive perspiration
• D. Fecal impaction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist, which stimulates muscarinic receptors. Activation of these receptors can lead to increased sweating (excessive perspiration) as a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with muscarinic stimulation. Dry mouth is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications, hypertension is not a common manifestation of muscarinic stimulation, and fecal impaction is not directly related to muscarinic receptor activation.

5. When starting therapy with trastuzumab, which finding should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea. Dyspnea can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect of trastuzumab. It is crucial for the client to report any breathing difficulties promptly to ensure timely intervention and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not commonly associated with trastuzumab therapy and are not indicative of serious adverse effects that require immediate attention.

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