Nursing Elites

1. What is a serious adverse reaction to penicillin?

• A. Liver Failure
• B. Anaphylaxis
• C. Respiratory Depression
• D. Edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can occur as a serious adverse reaction to penicillin. It is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Liver failure is not a typical adverse reaction to penicillin, respiratory depression is more commonly associated with opioid medications, and edema is not a common severe adverse reaction to penicillin.

2. A healthcare professional is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Take the medication with breakfast.
• B. Increase intake of foods high in potassium.
• C. Avoid prolonged sun exposure.
• D. Limit sodium intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase intake of foods high in potassium.' Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium depletion. The healthcare professional should instruct the client to increase the intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of Furosemide therapy. Choice A is incorrect as Furosemide is usually recommended to be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia. Choice C is unrelated to the side effects of Furosemide. Choice D, while important for overall health, is not directly related to the side effects of Furosemide.

3. A hospitalized client has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should be prepared for transfusion?

• A. Whole blood
• B. Platelets
• C. Fresh frozen plasma
• D. Packed red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the appropriate blood product for a client with an elevated aPTT as it contains various coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathies and prevent bleeding. Elevated aPTT indicates a deficiency in specific clotting factors, and fresh frozen plasma is rich in these factors. Whole blood, platelets, and packed red blood cells do not contain the necessary coagulation factors to correct an elevated aPTT, so they are not indicated in this situation.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client who has a systemic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication rapidly over 15 minutes.
• B. Monitor the client for hypertension during infusion.
• C. Administer a test dose before the full dose.
• D. Monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional is to monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome. Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse reaction to Vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. It is important to monitor the client for these symptoms to intervene promptly if they occur.

5. A client asks the nurse how Rituximab works, which the client is receiving to treat Non-Hodgkin's Leukemia. Which of the following should the nurse include?

• A. Blocks hormone receptors
• B. Increases immune response
• C. Binds with specific antigens on tumor cells
• D. Stops DNA replication during cell division

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds with specific antigens on B-lymphocytes, leading to the destruction of cancer cells. In the context of Non-Hodgkin's Leukemia, Rituximab targets and destroys cancerous B-lymphocytes, which helps in treating the disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Rituximab does not block hormone receptors, increase immune response, or stop DNA replication during cell division. The primary mode of action of Rituximab is its binding with specific antigens on tumor cells, specifically B-lymphocytes, to elicit an immune response against cancerous cells.

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