ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is starting therapy with topotecan. Which of the following findings should the professional instruct the client to report?
- A. Hair loss
- B. Fatigue
- C. Sore throat
- D. Red urine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Sore throat.' Clients starting therapy with topotecan should be instructed to report a sore throat because it can indicate an infection due to the immunosuppressive effects of the medication. Infections can be serious in clients undergoing chemotherapy, so early detection and treatment are crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are potential side effects of topotecan, they are usually not as immediately concerning as a sore throat, which could signal a serious infection requiring prompt attention.
2. A healthcare provider is providing instructions to the parent of an adolescent client who has a new prescription for Albuterol, PO. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. You should not use this medication for an acute asthma attack.'
- B. Tremors may be an adverse effect of this medication.'
- C. Long-term use of this medication can lead to hyperglycemia.'
- D. This medication can inhibit skeletal growth.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tremors may occur as a result of excessive stimulation of beta2 receptors in skeletal muscles when using Albuterol. It is important to educate the parent about potential adverse effects to ensure proper monitoring and management of the adolescent client's medication regimen.
3. How should a client prevent systemic absorption of Timolol eye drops according to the nurse's instructions?
- A. Bony orbit
- B. Nasolacrimal duct
- C. Conjunctival sac
- D. Outer canthus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct technique to prevent systemic absorption of eye drops is to press on the nasolacrimal duct while instilling them. By doing so, the lacrimal punctum gets temporarily blocked, reducing drainage into the nasolacrimal duct and systemic circulation. This method helps enhance the localized effect of the medication and decreases the risk of systemic side effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not play a direct role in preventing systemic absorption of the eye drops.
4. A client has a new prescription for Brimonidine ophthalmic drops and wears soft contact lenses. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. This medication can stain your contacts.
- B. This medication can cause your pupils to constrict.
- C. This medication can absorb into your contacts.
- D. This medication can slow your heart rate.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Brimonidine can absorb into soft contact lenses. To prevent this, the client should remove their contacts, instill the medication, and wait at least 15 minutes before putting the contacts back in to avoid potential absorption of the medication by the lenses. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Brimonidine's main concern with contact lenses is its absorption into the lenses rather than staining contacts, causing pupil constriction, or affecting heart rate.
5. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?
- A. Quinidine
- B. Disopyramide
- C. Aminodarone
- D. Propafenone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.
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