a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for furosemide which of the following instructions should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. What instruction should be included by the nurse during discharge?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase intake of foods high in potassium. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion. Increasing the intake of foods rich in potassium can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of Furosemide. Choice A is incorrect as Furosemide is usually recommended to be taken in the morning to avoid disrupting sleep with frequent urination. Choice C is irrelevant to the medication. Choice D is also incorrect as Furosemide is a diuretic and may require increased, not limited, fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

2. The client with angina is being discharged to home. The nurse is instructing the client on dietary changes. What should be included in this teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease salt and fat intake and limit alcohol intake. These dietary changes can help manage angina by reducing the workload on the heart and preventing further plaque buildup in the arteries. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as dietary restrictions for angina typically involve reducing salt, fat, and alcohol intake, rather than increasing sugar or cholesterol intake.

3. When instructing a client with a new prescription for Timolol on how to insert eye drops, which area should the nurse instruct the client to press on to prevent systemic absorption of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pressing on the nasolacrimal duct, located near the inner corner of the eye, blocks the lacrimal punctum and prevents the medication from entering the systemic circulation. This technique helps to ensure the medication stays localized in the eye, enhancing its therapeutic effect while minimizing systemic side effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. The bony orbit is the eye socket and not a site to press for preventing systemic absorption. The conjunctival sac is where eye drops are instilled, not pressed on. The outer canthus is also not the correct area to press to prevent systemic absorption.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist/antagonist that can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent individuals. Symptoms of abstinence syndrome can include abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. This occurs because butorphanol competes with and displaces opioid agonists from receptors, leading to withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol does not have a lower risk of abuse than morphine, it can cause respiratory depression similar to other opioids, and although it is an opioid antagonist, it does not get reversed by opioid antagonists.

5. A client is prescribed Diltiazem. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its negative chronotropic properties, slowing down the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia by regularly assessing the heart rate to prevent potential complications. Monitoring for tachycardia (choice A) is incorrect as diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia. Hypertension (choice C) is not a typical finding to monitor for with diltiazem use. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is not directly associated with diltiazem administration.

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