Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. What instruction should be included by the nurse during discharge?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Increase intake of foods high in potassium.
• C. Avoid sun exposure.
• D. Limit fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase intake of foods high in potassium. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion. Increasing the intake of foods rich in potassium can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of Furosemide. Choice A is incorrect as Furosemide is usually recommended to be taken in the morning to avoid disrupting sleep with frequent urination. Choice C is irrelevant to the medication. Choice D is also incorrect as Furosemide is a diuretic and may require increased, not limited, fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

2. A client has a new prescription for Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take one tablet every 15 minutes until pain is relieved.
• B. Take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three doses.
• C. Take one tablet at bedtime.
• D. Take one tablet on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to take one tablet at the onset of chest pain, then repeat every 5 minutes for up to three doses. This regimen helps in relieving angina symptoms effectively. Option A of taking one tablet every 15 minutes is too infrequent and may delay symptom relief. Option C of taking one tablet at bedtime is not appropriate as Nitroglycerin is used for immediate relief of angina. Option D of taking one tablet on an empty stomach is irrelevant since Nitroglycerin is not affected by food intake.

3. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

4. A patient is receiving education about a new prescription for Omeprazole to manage heartburn. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. This medication decreases the production of gastric acid.
• C. Take this medication 2 hours after eating.
• D. This medication can cause hyperkalemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct information to include when teaching a patient about Omeprazole is that it decreases the production of gastric acid. Omeprazole works by inhibiting the proton pump in the stomach lining, thereby reducing acid secretion. This mechanism helps in managing heartburn symptoms effectively. Choice A is incorrect because Omeprazole is usually taken before a meal. Choice C is incorrect as Omeprazole is typically taken before meals, not after. Choice D is incorrect because hyperkalemia is not a common side effect of Omeprazole.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?

• A. Urinary retention
• B. Tachypnea
• C. Hypertension
• D. Irritating cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.

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