Nursing Elites

1. What is a key characteristic of Illness Anxiety Disorder?

• A. Excessive focus on minor symptoms without medical evidence of illness
• B. The need for consistent reassurance from healthcare professionals
• C. Compulsive behavior to avoid physical illness
• D. Development of avoidance behaviors to reduce anxiety

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Excessive focus on minor symptoms without medical evidence of illness." Illness Anxiety Disorder, formerly known as hypochondriasis, is characterized by a preoccupation with having a serious illness despite no medical evidence to support the presence of an illness. Individuals with this disorder often interpret normal bodily sensations as signs of severe illness. Choice B is incorrect because while individuals with Illness Anxiety Disorder may seek reassurance from healthcare professionals, the excessive focus on minor symptoms is the key characteristic. Choice C is incorrect as compulsive behaviors to avoid physical illness are more characteristic of illnesses like Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. Choice D is incorrect as the development of avoidance behaviors to reduce anxiety is more commonly seen in conditions like specific phobias or social anxiety disorder.

2. Which principle is most important for maintaining medical asepsis in a healthcare setting?

• A. Sterilize instruments only when visibly contaminated.
• B. Use sterile gloves for all patient interactions.
• C. Disinfect patient areas only at the end of the day.
• D. Clean hands thoroughly before and after patient contact.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Clean hands thoroughly before and after patient contact. Hand hygiene is crucial for maintaining medical asepsis in a healthcare setting as it helps prevent the spread of infections between patients and healthcare workers. Choice A is incorrect because instruments should be sterilized regularly, not just when visibly contaminated. Choice B is incorrect as sterile gloves are not required for all patient interactions, only for specific procedures. Choice C is incorrect because patient areas should be disinfected regularly throughout the day, not just at the end of the day.

3. A client has a prescription for vancomycin 1g IV intermittent infusion over 30 minutes every 12 hours. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Start the infusion immediately
• B. Slow down the infusion rate
• C. Contact the provider for prescription clarification
• D. Check blood pressure during the infusion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider for prescription clarification. Administering vancomycin over less than 60 minutes can lead to infusion reactions like hypotension and flushing. Starting the infusion immediately (choice A) is incorrect as it goes against the prescribed rate. Slowing down the infusion rate (choice B) without provider approval can result in underdosing the medication. Checking blood pressure during the infusion (choice D) is important but not the most immediate action needed in this situation.

4. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake for 4 hours following the procedure
• B. Apply cold compresses to the puncture site after the procedure
• C. Instruct the client to increase oral fluid intake after the procedure
• D. Keep the client in a prone position for 12 hours after the procedure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to include in caring for a client scheduled for a lumbar puncture is to instruct the client to increase oral fluid intake after the procedure. Increasing oral fluid intake helps replace cerebrospinal fluid lost during the lumbar puncture and reduces the risk of headaches. Restricting fluid intake (Choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to dehydration. Applying cold compresses (Choice B) is not necessary after a lumbar puncture. Keeping the client in a prone position for 12 hours (Choice D) is not required after a lumbar puncture and can cause discomfort and complications.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

• A. PT of 12 seconds
• B. aPTT of 70 seconds
• C. Platelets of 150,000/mm3
• D. INR of 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

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