Nursing Elites

1. What is a key characteristic of Illness Anxiety Disorder?

• A. Excessive focus on minor symptoms without medical evidence of illness
• B. The need for consistent reassurance from healthcare professionals
• C. Compulsive behavior to avoid physical illness
• D. Development of avoidance behaviors to reduce anxiety

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Excessive focus on minor symptoms without medical evidence of illness." Illness Anxiety Disorder, formerly known as hypochondriasis, is characterized by a preoccupation with having a serious illness despite no medical evidence to support the presence of an illness. Individuals with this disorder often interpret normal bodily sensations as signs of severe illness. Choice B is incorrect because while individuals with Illness Anxiety Disorder may seek reassurance from healthcare professionals, the excessive focus on minor symptoms is the key characteristic. Choice C is incorrect as compulsive behaviors to avoid physical illness are more characteristic of illnesses like Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. Choice D is incorrect as the development of avoidance behaviors to reduce anxiety is more commonly seen in conditions like specific phobias or social anxiety disorder.

2. A patient with COPD is admitted with shortness of breath and a productive cough. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen at 4 L/min via nasal cannula
• B. Encourage the patient to cough and deep breathe
• C. Place the patient in a high-Fowler’s position
• D. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the patient in a high-Fowler’s position should be implemented first. This intervention helps improve lung expansion, making it easier for the patient to breathe. Elevating the head of the bed reduces the work of breathing and can alleviate symptoms of respiratory distress. Administering oxygen, encouraging coughing and deep breathing, and administering a bronchodilator are important interventions in the care of a patient with COPD, but positioning the patient for optimal lung expansion takes precedence in this scenario.

3. A nurse is assessing a client's wound dressing and observes a watery red drainage. The nurse should document this drainage as which of the following?

• A. Purulent
• B. Serous
• C. Sanguineous
• D. Serosanguineous

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, serosanguineous. Serosanguineous drainage is thin, watery, and pale red, indicating a mixture of serous fluid and blood. Choice A (purulent) refers to thick, yellow or green drainage indicating infection. Choice B (serous) is thin, clear drainage. Choice C (sanguineous) is bright red, indicating fresh bleeding.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing how a patient's pain is affecting mobility. Which assessment question is most appropriate?

• A. What activities, if any, has your pain prevented you from doing?
• B. When does your pain medication typically take effect on your pain?
• C. Would you please rate your pain on a scale from 0 to 10 for me?
• D. Have you considered working with a physical therapist?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate assessment question in this scenario is asking the patient, 'What activities, if any, has your pain prevented you from doing?' This question helps the healthcare provider understand how pain is impacting the patient's daily activities and mobility, providing valuable insight into the limitations caused by the pain. Choice B focuses on pain medication effectiveness, which is not directly related to mobility assessment. Choice C aims at pain intensity assessment but does not directly address mobility issues. Choice D suggests a solution rather than gathering information about the current impact of pain on mobility.

5. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

• A. Teaching stress-reduction techniques
• B. Early detection of mental illness
• C. Leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder
• D. Rehabilitation and prevention of further issues

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

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