ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A client undergoing chemotherapy expresses concern about hair loss. What should the nurse suggest?
- A. Encourage the client to cut their hair short before chemotherapy.
- B. Provide resources for wigs or hairpieces.
- C. Assure the client that hair loss will be minimal.
- D. Offer the client medication to reduce the chances of hair loss.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Providing wigs and other coping resources helps clients manage the emotional effects of chemotherapy-related hair loss. Encouraging the client to cut their hair short before chemotherapy (Choice A) is not necessary as hair loss may still occur. Assuring the client that hair loss will be minimal (Choice C) may provide false hope as hair loss is a common side effect of chemotherapy. Offering medication to reduce hair loss (Choice D) is not a typical approach as chemotherapy-related hair loss is often an expected side effect that cannot be entirely prevented with medication.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following activities should the client avoid?
- A. Swimming in a pool
- B. Driving a car
- C. Light housework
- D. Walking on flat ground
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Driving a car. Driving a car can be physically and emotionally taxing, increasing the risk of complications soon after a myocardial infarction. It requires quick reflexes and decision-making abilities, which may be impaired during the recovery period. Swimming in a pool, light housework, and walking on flat ground are generally safe and beneficial activities for clients following a myocardial infarction as they promote circulation, muscle strength, and overall well-being.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Elevated temperature
- B. Low blood pressure
- C. Decreased urine output
- D. Increased heart rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a postoperative client, decreased urine output is a crucial finding as it can indicate impaired kidney function or inadequate fluid balance. Prioritizing assessment and intervention for decreased urine output is essential to prevent complications like acute kidney injury. Elevated temperature, low blood pressure, and increased heart rate are also important, but they may not be as urgent or directly related to kidney function in a postoperative client.
4. Which of the following statements reflects the principles of sterile technique?
- A. Sterile objects that come in contact with unsterile objects are to be considered contaminated.
- B. Items in a sterile package must be used immediately once the package has been opened; otherwise, they are considered contaminated.
- C. Any part of a sterile field that hangs below the top of the table is sterile as long as it is not touched.
- D. The edge of a sterile field and a border 1 inch (2.5 cm) inward is unsterile.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement reflecting the principles of sterile technique is that sterile objects that come in contact with unsterile objects are considered contaminated. This principle is crucial in maintaining asepsis during medical procedures. Choice B is incorrect because items in a sterile package should only be used if they remain sterile; opening the package does not automatically contaminate the items. Choice C is incorrect as any part of a sterile field that hangs below the top of the table is considered unsterile. Choice D is incorrect as the edge of a sterile field and a border inward are typically considered unsterile to maintain the integrity of the sterile area.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Monitor the client's intake and output every 6 hours
- B. Administer furosemide to the client
- C. Check the client's IV infusion every 8 hours
- D. Offer the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Offering the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours is essential to maintain hydration in a client with dehydration who is receiving continuous IV infusion. This intervention helps ensure an adequate fluid balance. Monitoring the client's intake and output every 6 hours is necessary to assess hydration status and response to treatment. Administering furosemide to the client, choice B, is contraindicated in dehydration as it can further deplete fluid volume. Checking the IV infusion every 8 hours, as in choice C, is important but not as critical as ensuring oral fluid intake to promote hydration.
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