what intervention is needed when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. What intervention is needed when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the correct intervention is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This can help resolve an air leak that is causing the continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the entire chest tube system are not appropriate interventions in this scenario. Clamping the tube can lead to a dangerous buildup of pressure, while replacing the chest tube system may not be necessary if the issue can be resolved by simply tightening the connections. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without taking corrective action may lead to complications associated with the air leak.

2. What symptoms are expected in a patient with compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with compartment syndrome, the key symptoms include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These symptoms indicate reduced circulation in the affected compartment. Choice B is incorrect as localized swelling and numbness are not typically associated with compartment syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as fever and infection are not primary symptoms of compartment syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as weakness and fatigue are not typically seen in compartment syndrome.

3. A nurse misreads a glucose reading and administers insulin for a blood glucose of 210 instead of 120. What should the nurse monitor the patient for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia. The nurse should monitor the patient for hypoglycemia due to the administration of excess insulin. Administering insulin for a blood glucose level of 210 instead of 120 can lead to a rapid drop in blood sugar levels, causing hypoglycemia. Option A is incorrect as hyperglycemia is high blood sugar, which is unlikely in this scenario. Option C is incorrect as administering glucose IV would worsen the hypoglycemia. Option D is not the immediate priority; patient safety and monitoring for adverse effects take precedence.

4. What lab value is a priority in monitoring a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This value guides the initiation of prophylaxis for infections and the timing of antiretroviral therapy initiation. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in monitoring patients with HIV. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess for anemia, serum albumin levels reflect nutritional status, and white blood cell count is more generalized and may not specifically indicate the severity of immunocompromise in HIV patients.

5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Furosemide can lead to hypokalemia, a condition of low potassium levels in the blood. Increasing the consumption of high-potassium foods helps prevent this adverse effect. Monitoring for increased blood pressure (choice A) is not directly related to furosemide use. Expecting an increase in swelling (choice C) is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce swelling. Taking the second dose at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary unless prescribed by the healthcare provider.

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