Nursing Elites

1. What is the expected outcome of administering a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)?

• A. Reduction in red blood cell count
• B. Decreased number of infections
• C. Decreased fatigue and increased energy
• D. Increase in white blood cell count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased number of infections. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells, specifically granulocytes, in the body. By increasing the number of white blood cells, G-CSF helps in boosting the immune system, leading to a decreased number of infections. Choice A is incorrect as G-CSF does not cause a reduction in red blood cell count. Choice C is incorrect as G-CSF primarily affects white blood cells and is not directly related to fatigue or energy levels. Choice D is incorrect as G-CSF does increase the white blood cell count but does not usually elevate it to 20,000 mm3.

2. A teacher in a preschool is diagnosed with giardiasis. Which of the following medications will be administered to treat the diarrhea and abdominal distention?

• A. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)
• B. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• C. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
• D. Doxycycline (Vibramycin)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is the drug of choice for treating giardiasis, which is a common cause of diarrhea and abdominal distention. Sulfasalazine (Choice A) is used to treat inflammatory bowel disease. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole (Choice C) is commonly used for urinary tract infections and Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. Doxycycline (Choice D) is commonly used to treat various bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for giardiasis.

3. A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation of a sharp, intermittent, severe, stabbing facial pain that she describes as 'like an electric shock.' The pain occurs only on one side of her face; it seems to be triggered when she chews, brushes her teeth, or sometimes when she merely touches her face. There is no numbness associated with the pain. What is most likely causing her pain?

• A. Temporal arteritis
• B. Trigeminal neuralgia
• C. Migraine headache
• D. Cluster headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by severe, stabbing pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve, often triggered by light touch, chewing, or brushing teeth. In this case, the patient's symptoms of sharp, intermittent facial pain triggered by activities like chewing and touching her face are classic for trigeminal neuralgia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Temporal arteritis typically presents with unilateral headache, jaw claudication, and visual symptoms. Migraine headaches are usually throbbing in nature and often associated with nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Cluster headaches are characterized by severe unilateral pain around the eye with autonomic symptoms like lacrimation and nasal congestion.

4. A 65-year-old man is admitted to the intensive care unit from the operating room after a triple coronary artery bypass graft. He is intubated and on a ventilator. Lactic acid levels were normal postoperatively, but now they are rising. The increased level could be an indication of:

• A. excessive sedation
• B. bowel ischemia
• C. excessive volume infusion in the operating room
• D. mild hypothermia postoperatively

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the rising lactic acid levels in a 65-year-old man after a coronary artery bypass graft could indicate bowel ischemia. Bowel ischemia can lead to anaerobic metabolism, causing an increase in lactic acid levels. Excessive sedation may cause respiratory depression but would not directly lead to rising lactic acid levels. Excessive volume infusion in the operating room might cause fluid overload but would not typically result in rising lactic acid levels. Mild hypothermia postoperatively could lead to shivering and increased oxygen consumption, but it is less likely to be the primary cause of rising lactic acid levels in this context.

5. A 55-year-old man presents with a history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He reports recent onset of a productive cough and hemoptysis. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

• A. Lung cancer
• B. Pneumonia
• C. Tuberculosis
• D. Pulmonary embolism

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tuberculosis. The symptoms described - fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, productive cough, and hemoptysis - are classic manifestations of tuberculosis. Tuberculosis is an infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, commonly affecting the lungs but can also involve other organs. **Choice A: Lung cancer** typically presents with symptoms like persistent cough, chest pain, and shortness of breath, but it is less likely in this case due to the presence of hemoptysis. **Choice B: Pneumonia** can present with productive cough, fever, and chest pain, but it is less likely given the chronicity of symptoms and the presence of hemoptysis. **Choice D: Pulmonary embolism** usually presents with sudden onset shortness of breath, chest pain, and can be associated with risk factors like recent surgery or immobility.

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