a patient is administered a granulocyte colony stimulating factor g csf what is the expected outcome of a g csf
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Nursing Elites

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Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

1. What is the expected outcome of administering a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased number of infections. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells, specifically granulocytes, in the body. By increasing the number of white blood cells, G-CSF helps in boosting the immune system, leading to a decreased number of infections. Choice A is incorrect as G-CSF does not cause a reduction in red blood cell count. Choice C is incorrect as G-CSF primarily affects white blood cells and is not directly related to fatigue or energy levels. Choice D is incorrect as G-CSF does increase the white blood cell count but does not usually elevate it to 20,000 mm3.

2. How should the nurse respond to a 72-year-old patient diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) who is skeptical about tamsulosin (Flomax) for symptom relief?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is choice B because it explains the mechanism of action of Flomax, which helps the patient understand how the medication works. By stating that Flomax relaxes the prostate and bladder neck, making it easier to pass urine, the nurse is addressing the patient's concerns about symptom relief. Choices A, C, and D provide inaccurate information about Flomax's mechanism of action and do not directly address the patient's skepticism or concerns.

3. Which of the following types of vitamin or mineral deficiency can cause megaloblastic anemia and is associated with lower extremity paresthesias?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin B12. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to megaloblastic anemia and neurological symptoms, including lower extremity paresthesias. Folate deficiency can also cause megaloblastic anemia but typically does not present with neurological symptoms. Iron deficiency leads to microcytic anemia, not megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin K deficiency is associated with coagulation abnormalities, not megaloblastic anemia.

4. A 60-year-old male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Androgen therapy, such as testosterone, can lead to hepatotoxicity, which is toxic to the liver. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient's liver function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because androgen therapy is not typically associated with nephrotoxicity, cardiotoxicity, or pulmonary toxicity.

5. A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be most effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). HAART involves a combination of different classes of antiretroviral drugs, which can effectively suppress the HIV virus, reduce the viral load, and improve the immune function. While choices A, B, and C are also used in HIV treatment, the most effective approach is a combination therapy like HAART due to its ability to target the virus at different stages of its life cycle, reducing the risk of drug resistance and improving treatment outcomes.

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