ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 3
1. What function does aldosterone serve in the body?
- A. Aldosterone causes a release of sodium from the body, decreases fluid volume, and decreases blood pressure
- B. Aldosterone causes a retention of sodium in the body, increases fluid volume, and increases blood pressure
- C. Aldosterone causes a release of sodium from the body, increases fluid volume, and decreases blood pressure
- D. Aldosterone enhances intracellular sodium production and lowers blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Aldosterone functions by causing the retention of sodium in the body, which results in an increase in fluid volume and blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because aldosterone actually promotes sodium retention rather than release. Choice C is incorrect as it states that aldosterone decreases fluid volume, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect because aldosterone does not enhance intracellular sodium production; instead, it primarily acts on sodium reabsorption in the kidneys.
2. A 69-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with malignant melanoma. The care team has collaborated with the patient and her family and agreed on a plan of care that includes administration of interferon alfa-2b. After administering interferon alfa-2b, the oncology nurse should anticipate that the patient may develop which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Profound diaphoresis
- B. Decreased level of consciousness
- C. Flu-like symptoms
- D. Cyanosis and pallor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After the administration of interferon alfa-2b, the patient may develop flu-like symptoms as an adverse effect. Flu-like symptoms are commonly associated with interferon therapy, including fever, chills, fatigue, and muscle aches. These symptoms usually subside over time. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with interferon alfa-2b administration. Profound diaphoresis is excessive sweating, decreased level of consciousness indicates neurological issues, and cyanosis and pallor suggest circulatory or respiratory problems, none of which are expected adverse effects of interferon alfa-2b.
3. What potential risk should the nurse identify as being associated with infliximab (Remicade) in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
- A. Risk for infection
- B. Risk for decreased level of consciousness
- C. Risk for nephrotoxicity
- D. Risk for hepatotoxicity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for infection. Infliximab (Remicade) is a medication used to treat autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. One of the main risks associated with infliximab is an increased susceptibility to infections due to its immunosuppressive effects. This drug works by targeting specific proteins in the body's immune system, which can weaken the body's ability to fight off infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because infliximab is not typically associated with decreased level of consciousness, nephrotoxicity, or hepatotoxicity. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients on infliximab for signs of infection and educate them on the importance of infection prevention strategies.
4. A patient who was frequently homeless over the past several years has begun a drug regimen consisting solely of isoniazid (INH). What is this patient's most likely diagnosis?
- A. Active tuberculosis
- B. Latent tuberculosis
- C. Mycobacterium avium complex
- D. Human immunodeficiency virus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active tuberculosis. Given the patient's history of homelessness and initiation of isoniazid (INH) treatment, the most likely diagnosis is active tuberculosis. Isoniazid is a first-line medication used in the treatment of active tuberculosis. Latent tuberculosis (choice B) would not typically necessitate treatment with isoniazid alone. Mycobacterium avium complex (choice C) is not typically treated with isoniazid alone. Human immunodeficiency virus (choice D) is a risk factor for developing tuberculosis but is not the primary diagnosis in this patient scenario.
5. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism. What laboratory tests should the nurse monitor during this therapy?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Kidney function tests
- C. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
- D. Complete blood count (CBC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During androgen therapy for hypogonadism, it is important to monitor liver function tests. Androgens can affect the liver, potentially leading to liver dysfunction. Monitoring liver function tests helps in early detection of any liver abnormalities. Kidney function tests (Choice B) are not typically affected by androgen therapy. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels (Choice C) may be monitored for conditions like prostate cancer, but it is not directly related to androgen therapy for hypogonadism. A complete blood count (CBC) (Choice D) may not show specific changes related to androgen therapy for hypogonadism.
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