ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. What are the manifestations of osteomyelitis?
- A. Localized pain, swelling, erythema
- B. Elevated white blood cells
- C. Elevated calcium levels
- D. Low potassium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Osteomyelitis often manifests as localized pain, swelling, and erythema due to infection in the bone. These symptoms are characteristic of inflammation and infection in the bone tissue. Elevated white blood cells (Choice B) may be present as part of the body's immune response to the infection but are not specific manifestations of osteomyelitis. Elevated calcium levels (Choice C) and low potassium levels (Choice D) are not typically associated with osteomyelitis.
2. When caring for a patient with hypokalemia, what should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Monitor for muscle weakness
- B. Check for cardiac dysrhythmias
- C. Monitor for bradycardia
- D. Monitor for seizures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Answer: Muscle weakness is a common sign of hypokalemia. The nurse should monitor for muscle weakness as potassium plays a crucial role in muscle function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although hypokalemia can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, bradycardia, and even seizures in severe cases, muscle weakness is a more common and specific sign directly related to potassium levels.
3. What recommendations should the nurse provide to a patient diagnosed with GERD?
- A. Avoid items like mint that increase gastric acid secretion
- B. Eat small, frequent meals
- C. Avoid eating 1 hour before bedtime
- D. Avoid black and red pepper
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid items like mint that increase gastric acid secretion.' Mint can relax the lower esophageal sphincter, leading to increased gastric acid secretion and worsening GERD symptoms. Choice B is a good recommendation for GERD management as it helps prevent excessive stomach distension. Choice C is also a recommended practice to avoid reflux during sleep. Choice D, avoiding black and red pepper, is not directly linked to exacerbating GERD symptoms, so it is not the most relevant recommendation for a patient diagnosed with GERD.
4. What ECG changes are seen in hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves on the ECG
- B. Elevated ST segments on the ECG
- C. Widened QRS complex
- D. Prominent U waves on the ECG
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on the ECG. Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Choice B, Elevated ST segments, is not typically seen in hypokalemia but can be a sign of myocardial infarction. Choice C, Widened QRS complex, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia. Choice D, Prominent U waves, is typically associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are considered a more specific and early sign.
5. A patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is asking for dietary recommendations. What should the nurse suggest?
- A. Limit protein intake
- B. Limit potassium intake
- C. Restrict sodium intake
- D. Limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, it is crucial to limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day to manage their condition. High phosphorus levels can lead to complications such as bone and heart problems. Limiting protein intake is essential in later stages of kidney disease, particularly in dialysis patients to reduce the buildup of waste products. While limiting potassium and restricting sodium intake are also important in kidney disease management, the priority for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to control phosphorus levels.
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