Nursing Elites

1. What diagnostic test allows visualization of renal parenchyma and renal pelvis without exposure to external-beam radiation or radioactive isotopes?

• A. Renal ultrasonography
• B. Computed tomography
• C. Intravenous pyelography
• D. Voiding cystourethrography

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Renal ultrasonography provides imaging of the renal parenchyma and pelvis without the risks associated with radiation or radioactive isotopes, making it a safer option, especially for children.

2. What is the primary treatment goal for a child with nephrotic syndrome?

• A. Reduce proteinuria
• B. Lower blood pressure
• C. Increase urine output
• D. Prevent infections

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce proteinuria. In nephrotic syndrome, the primary treatment goal is to reduce proteinuria to prevent further kidney damage. Lowering blood pressure (choice B) is important in managing some types of kidney disease but is not the primary treatment goal in nephrotic syndrome. Increasing urine output (choice C) and preventing infections (choice D) are important aspects of supportive care but are not the primary treatment goal for nephrotic syndrome.

3. An infant with short bowel syndrome is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The practitioner has added continuous enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube. The nurse recognizes this as important for which reason?

• A. Wean the infant from TPN gradually
• B. Stimulate adaptation of the small intestine
• C. Provide additional nutrients that cannot be included in the TPN
• D. Offer parents encouragement that the child is close to discharge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Continuous enteral feedings help stimulate the small intestine's adaptation in short bowel syndrome, promoting better nutrient absorption and eventually reducing reliance on TPN. This approach is crucial for long-term management and improving the child's prognosis. Choice A is incorrect because weaning off TPN typically occurs gradually over time, not the next day. Choice C is incorrect because TPN can be adjusted to provide necessary nutrients, and enteral feedings are mainly used to stimulate intestinal function. Choice D is incorrect as the addition of enteral feedings does not necessarily indicate imminent discharge; it primarily focuses on enhancing intestinal adaptation and reducing reliance on TPN.

4. The presence of which pair of factors is a good predictor of a fluid deficit of at least 5% in an infant?

• A. Weight loss and decreased heart rate
• B. Capillary refill of less than 2 seconds and no tears
• C. Increased skin elasticity and sunken anterior fontanel
• D. Dry mucous membranes and generally ill appearance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes and an ill appearance are good indicators of dehydration in infants, often correlating with a fluid deficit of at least 5%. Sunken fontanels and poor skin turgor are also indicative but were not options here.

5. Which nonpharmacologic intervention appears to be effective in decreasing neonatal procedural pain?

• A. Tactile stimulation
• B. Commercial warm packs
• C. Doing procedure during infant sleep
• D. Oral sucrose and nonnutritive sucking

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Oral sucrose and nonnutritive sucking are effective nonpharmacologic interventions for reducing procedural pain in neonates.

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