ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam 2023 Test Bank
1. What condition has been shown to be associated with esophageal dysphagia?
- A. myasthenia gravis
- B. achalasia
- C. Alzheimer's disease
- D. cerebral palsy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Achalasia is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by the esophagus having difficulty moving food toward the stomach, resulting in dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). Myasthenia gravis (Choice A) is a neuromuscular disorder that affects skeletal muscles, not the esophagus. Alzheimer's disease (Choice C) primarily affects cognitive function, not the esophagus. Cerebral palsy (Choice D) is a neurological disorder affecting body movement and muscle coordination, unrelated to esophageal dysphagia.
2. A nurse is teaching a parent about appropriate snack choices for her 9-month-old infant. Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend?
- A. Skim milk
- B. Unsalted popcorn
- C. Graham crackers
- D. Raw carrots
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Graham crackers are an appropriate snack choice for a 9-month-old infant due to their texture and ease of consumption. Skim milk (Choice A) is not recommended for infants under 1 year old due to the potential risk of developing milk allergies. Unsalted popcorn (Choice B) can be a choking hazard for infants. Raw carrots (Choice D) are a potential choking hazard for a 9-month-old infant and may be difficult for them to chew and digest.
3. Which type of medication is most likely to induce xerostomia?
- A. Antibiotics
- B. Diuretics
- C. Local anesthetics
- D. Anticholinergics
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Anticholinergics. Anticholinergic medications commonly cause xerostomia by inhibiting saliva production, leading to dry mouth. Antibiotics (choice A) are not typically associated with xerostomia. Diuretics (choice B) increase urine production but do not directly affect saliva production. Local anesthetics (choice C) are used to numb specific areas during dental procedures and do not induce xerostomia.
4. A client is planning eating strategies with a nurse who has nausea from equilibrium imbalance. Which of the following strategies should the nurse recommend?
- A. Encourage the client to eat, even if nauseated.
- B. Provide low-fat carbohydrates with meals.
- C. Limit fluid intake between meals.
- D. Serve hot foods at mealtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide low-fat carbohydrates with meals. Low-fat carbohydrates are easier to digest and can help manage nausea without overloading the digestive system. Encouraging the client to eat even if nauseated (Choice A) may worsen their symptoms. Limiting fluid intake between meals (Choice C) may lead to dehydration, which can exacerbate nausea. Serving hot foods at mealtime (Choice D) may not necessarily address the underlying issue of equilibrium imbalance causing nausea.
5. When assessing for criteria that signify malnutrition risk, which element would most likely be included as part of the functional assessment data?
- A. severity of illness
- B. presence of pressure sores
- C. localized edema
- D. generalized weakness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Generalized weakness is a key indicator of malnutrition and is often assessed as part of functional status, reflecting muscle wasting and reduced physical function. The other choices, such as severity of illness, presence of pressure sores, and localized edema, are important factors to consider in a clinical assessment but are not primarily indicative of malnutrition risk. Generalized weakness directly relates to the functional impact of malnutrition on physical performance.
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