Nursing Elites

1. What is the first-line treatment for wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

• A. Albuterol via nebulizer
• B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
• C. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
• D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction because it acts quickly to open the airways by relaxing the muscles in the air passages. Cromolyn (Choice B) is used for asthma prevention rather than acute wheezing. Methylprednisolone (Choice C) and Aminophylline (Choice D) are not the first-line treatments for acute wheezing in the setting of an allergic reaction.

2. A client has a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA). What should the nurse teach?

• A. Avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime
• B. Consume liquids between meals
• C. Eat large meals to increase caloric intake
• D. Avoid liquids to prevent aspiration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime. For a client with a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA), it is crucial to avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime to reduce reflux that can worsen symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because consuming liquids between meals is not specifically related to managing TIA. Choice C is incorrect as eating large meals may not be recommended, especially if the client needs to watch their caloric intake. Choice D is incorrect because avoiding liquids entirely can lead to dehydration and is not a standard recommendation for TIA management.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications should the professional anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the procedure?

• A. Propofol
• B. Pancuronium
• C. Promethazine
• D. Pentoxifylline

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Propofol. Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic medication commonly used for procedures like colonoscopies to induce moderate sedation. Pancuronium (Choice B) is a neuromuscular blocking agent used as a paralyzing agent during surgery, not for sedation. Promethazine (Choice C) is an antihistamine often used for nausea and vomiting, not as an anesthetic. Pentoxifylline (Choice D) is a medication used to improve blood flow and is not indicated for anesthesia.

4. What should be monitored in a patient with diabetes insipidus?

• A. Monitor urine specific gravity for values below 1.005
• B. Monitor for increased thirst
• C. Monitor serum albumin levels
• D. Monitor blood pressure closely

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with diabetes insipidus, monitoring urine specific gravity for values below 1.005 is crucial. Low urine specific gravity indicates excessive water loss, a key characteristic of diabetes insipidus. Monitoring for increased thirst (choice B) may be a symptom presented by the patient, but it does not directly reflect the condition's severity. Monitoring serum albumin levels (choice C) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. Monitoring blood pressure closely (choice D) is not a primary concern in diabetes insipidus unless severe dehydration leads to hypotension.

5. A patient has been diagnosed with a thrombotic stroke. What are the expected manifestations?

• A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
• B. Sudden loss of consciousness
• C. Seizures and confusion
• D. Loss of sensation in the affected limb

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Gradual loss of function on one side of the body.' Thrombotic strokes lead to slow and progressive symptoms as a result of decreased blood flow to a specific area of the brain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, seizures, confusion, and loss of sensation in the affected limb are not typical manifestations of a thrombotic stroke.

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