Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary action of warfarin as an anticoagulant?

• A. Prevents the formation of blood clots
• B. Dissolves existing blood clots
• C. Dilates coronary arteries
• D. Treats rhythm disturbances

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Prevents the formation of blood clots." Warfarin acts as an anticoagulant by inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors in the liver. This action reduces the blood's ability to clot, making it effective in preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice B is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots; it prevents their formation. Choice C is incorrect because warfarin's primary action is not to dilate coronary arteries. Choice D is incorrect as warfarin is not used to treat rhythm disturbances, but rather to prevent clot formation.

2. A client is starting therapy with filgrastim, and a nurse is providing teaching on monitoring adverse effects. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Bone pain
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bone pain. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for bone pain since it is a common adverse effect of filgrastim. This occurs due to increased bone marrow activity stimulated by the medication.

3. When should a patient taking omeprazole be administered the medication?

• A. Before bedtime
• B. After dinner
• C. In the morning on an empty stomach
• D. With the patient's lunch meal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Omeprazole should be administered in the morning on an empty stomach to maximize its effectiveness. This timing is important as omeprazole works best when taken before a meal to inhibit acid production by the stomach. Taking it on an empty stomach in the morning allows the medication to be absorbed efficiently and provides optimal therapeutic effects throughout the day. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking omeprazole before bedtime, after dinner, or with lunch may not allow the medication to work effectively as it requires an empty stomach for better absorption and action.

4. A client is prescribed Diltiazem. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its negative chronotropic properties, slowing down the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia by regularly assessing the heart rate to prevent potential complications. Monitoring for tachycardia (choice A) is incorrect as diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia. Hypertension (choice C) is not a typical finding to monitor for with diltiazem use. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is not directly associated with diltiazem administration.

5. When caring for a client with a wound infection, which action should the nurse perform first in the plan of care?

• A. Administer antibiotic medication.
• B. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.
• C. Review WBC laboratory findings.
• D. Apply a dressing to the wound.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action when caring for a client with a wound infection is to obtain a wound specimen for culture before initiating antibiotic therapy. This step is crucial to identify the specific microorganism causing the infection, allowing for targeted antibiotic treatment. Reviewing WBC laboratory findings and applying a wound dressing are important steps, but obtaining a wound specimen for culture takes precedence as it guides appropriate antibiotic therapy by identifying the causative organism.

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