warfarin is an anticoagulant that
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. What is the primary action of warfarin as an anticoagulant?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Prevents the formation of blood clots." Warfarin acts as an anticoagulant by inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors in the liver. This action reduces the blood's ability to clot, making it effective in preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice B is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots; it prevents their formation. Choice C is incorrect because warfarin's primary action is not to dilate coronary arteries. Choice D is incorrect as warfarin is not used to treat rhythm disturbances, but rather to prevent clot formation.

2. A client has a new prescription for Methotrexate to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Methotrexate is to avoid alcohol, as it can increase the risk of liver damage. Alcohol consumption should be avoided to prevent potential adverse effects while on this medication.

3. A client has a fungal infection and a new prescription for amphotericin B. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider before initiating the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated BUN level of 55 mg/dL should be reported before starting amphotericin B due to its nephrotoxic effects. Amphotericin B can cause kidney damage, and an elevated BUN indicates impaired kidney function, increasing the risk of further renal damage with this medication. Sodium, potassium, and glucose levels are not directly associated with the nephrotoxic effects of amphotericin B, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.

4. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Nifedipine?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used in the management of angina and hypertension. It is not typically used to treat arrhythmias or fluid retention. Angina is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, and hypertension is high blood pressure. Therefore, fluid retention is the condition that is not treated with Nifedipine.

5. A client has a new prescription for Metformin. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Metformin is to take it with food. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects and ensures better absorption of the medication. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to avoid foods high in potassium when taking Metformin. Choice C is incorrect because Metformin is usually taken with meals, not at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as Metformin is typically taken daily, not every other day.

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