Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling in the lower extremities, as it indicates the onset of edema. Hypertension is typically treated with Nifedipine and is not an adverse effect of the medication. Hyperglycemia and bradycardia are not commonly associated with Nifedipine use. Therefore, the correct adverse effect to monitor for when a client is prescribed Nifedipine is edema.

2. A male client recently started taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?

• A. Shuffling gait
• B. Neck spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Impotence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that can quickly progress to a crisis situation. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent complications. Shuffling gait and drowsiness are common side effects of Haloperidol but are not as urgent as neck spasms. Impotence is not typically associated with Haloperidol use. Therefore, identifying neck spasms as the priority finding is crucial for the client's safety.

3. Which of the following is not a common effect of Midazolam?

• A. Amnesia
• B. Decreased respiratory function
• C. Anesthetic
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Midazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for its sedative, anxiolytic, and amnestic effects. While dizziness can be a side effect of Midazolam, it is not a primary or common effect. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it deviates from the typical effects associated with Midazolam.

4. A client who is receiving combination chemotherapy is exhibiting a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

• A. Dry oral mucous membranes
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
• D. Anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients undergoing chemotherapy due to the heightened risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent severe complications. Dry oral mucous membranes, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are common side effects of chemotherapy but are not specific indicators of an oncologic emergency like a fever in this setting.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer metoprolol to a client. Which of the following findings should the provider identify as a contraindication to receiving this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Fever
• D. Rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, is contraindicated in clients with bradycardia as it can further lower the heart rate, potentially leading to more serious complications. Bradycardia is defined as a heart rate below 60 beats per minute, and administering metoprolol in such cases can exacerbate this condition, causing adverse effects on cardiac output. Hypertension, fever, and rash are not contraindications for metoprolol administration.

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