a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin the nurse should instruct the client to report which of the fol

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report that can indicate the medication is effective?

A. Headache
B. Nausea
C. Dizziness
D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Headache is a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory effects. It can indicate that the medication is working effectively by dilating blood vessels, improving blood flow, and reducing cardiac workload. Therefore, the client should report experiencing headaches as it may suggest the therapeutic action of nitroglycerin. Nausea, dizziness, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the therapeutic effects of nitroglycerin and should be reported as adverse effects that may necessitate medical attention.

2. A client with Hodgkin's disease is receiving Cyclophosphamide IV. Which medication should be administered concurrently to prevent an adverse effect of Cyclophosphamide?

A. Uroprotectant agent, such as mesna
B. Opioid, such as morphine
C. Loop diuretic, such as furosemide
D. H1 receptor antagonist, such as diphenhydramine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mesna, an uroprotectant agent, is administered with nitrogen mustard chemotherapy drugs like Cyclophosphamide to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis, a common adverse effect. Mesna works by binding to and inactivating the toxic metabolites of Cyclophosphamide in the bladder, thereby reducing the risk of bladder toxicity.

3. Which medication is a beta blocker?

A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
B. Verapamil (Calan)
C. Captopril (Capoten)
D. Clopidogrel (Plavix)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta blocker commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and angina by blocking the action of adrenaline on the heart. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker, Captopril is an ACE inhibitor, and Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication. Therefore, the correct answer is Atenolol (Tenormin) as it belongs to the beta blocker class of medications.

4. Potassium-sparing diuretics primarily affect which part of the kidney?

A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Loop of Henle
C. Collecting duct
D. Distal convoluted tubule

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Potassium-sparing diuretics exert their primary effects on the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney. By acting on this specific part of the nephron, these diuretics promote sodium excretion while sparing potassium, thus helping to maintain potassium levels in the body. This mechanism differs from other diuretics that may cause potassium loss as a side effect. Understanding the site of action of potassium-sparing diuretics is crucial in clinical practice for managing conditions like hypertension and edema where diuresis is necessary without the risk of hypokalemia.

5. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for a Fentanyl transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A. Apply the patch to a hairy area.
B. Change the patch every 24 hours.
C. Avoid exposure to heat sources.
D. Cut the patch to adjust the dosage.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include when providing discharge instructions for a client with a Fentanyl transdermal patch is to avoid exposure to heat sources. Heat can increase the absorption of the medication, leading to a risk of overdose. Choice A is incorrect because the patch should be applied to a clean, non-hairy area. Choice B is incorrect as the Fentanyl patch is usually changed every 72 hours, not every 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as the patch should never be cut to adjust the dosage.