ATI RN
ATI Community Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. What is the MOST COMMON cause of vaginal bleeding immediately after birth?
- A. Uterine atony
- B. Genital lacerations
- C. Abnormal clotting mechanisms
- D. Endometritis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Vaginal bleeding immediately after birth is most commonly due to uterine atony. Uterine atony is the failure of the uterine muscle to contract adequately after childbirth, leading to postpartum hemorrhage. This condition is more frequent than genital lacerations, abnormal clotting mechanisms, or endometritis as a cause of immediate postpartum bleeding.
2. A nurse is teaching a client about adding more fiber to his diet. The nurse should teach the client that which of the following foods has the highest fiber content?
- A. 1 cup cooked sweet potato
- B. 1 slice rye toast
- C. 1 cup raw watermelon
- D. 1 oz cashews
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cashews have the highest fiber content among the options listed, which is important for improving digestive health.
3. A client is taking metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urine output
- B. Decreased fasting blood glucose
- C. Decreased hemoglobin A1C
- D. Decreased polyuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A decrease in hemoglobin A1C is a more specific indicator of metformin's effectiveness in controlling blood glucose levels over a longer period compared to fasting blood glucose levels. Hemoglobin A1C reflects average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months, providing a more comprehensive view of glycemic control. Increased urine output (choice A) is not a direct indicator of metformin's effectiveness and can be influenced by various factors. Decreased fasting blood glucose (choice B) can fluctuate due to various reasons and may not provide a reliable long-term assessment of metformin's efficacy. Decreased polyuria (choice D) refers to a symptom rather than a direct measure of metformin's effectiveness in managing diabetes.
4. A 70-year-old man has enjoyed good overall health for all of his adult life, but he has been experiencing urinary frequency and dribbling that has culminated in a diagnosis of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). As a result, the patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When teaching the patient about the potential adverse effects of the drug, the nurse should ensure that he knows about the possibility of
- A. sexual dysfunction.
- B. urethral burning.
- C. kidney stones.
- D. visual disturbances.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect of finasteride (Proscar) that the nurse should educate the patient about is sexual dysfunction. Finasteride is known to cause sexual side effects such as decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, and ejaculation disorders. Urethral burning, kidney stones, and visual disturbances are not commonly associated with finasteride use, making them incorrect choices for this scenario.
5. After studying about viruses, which information indicates the student has a good understanding of viruses? Viruses:
- A. Contain no RNA or DNA
- B. Are capable of independent reproduction
- C. Replicate their genetic material inside host cells
- D. Are killed easily by antimicrobials
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Viruses replicate their genetic material inside host cells, which is a fundamental aspect of their life cycle. Choice A is incorrect because viruses contain either RNA or DNA. Choice B is incorrect as viruses cannot reproduce independently and rely on host cells for replication. Choice D is incorrect as viruses are not easily killed by antimicrobials due to their unique structure and mechanisms of infection.
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