Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is monitoring a client on dobutamine. What adverse effect should the nurse watch for?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Respiratory distress

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Dobutamine is a medication that stimulates beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart, leading to increased heart rate. Therefore, tachycardia is a common adverse effect that the nurse should monitor for. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dobutamine typically does not cause bradycardia, hypertension, or respiratory distress as its primary adverse effects.

2. The client is on amiodarone and reports blurred vision. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Reassure the client that this is a common side effect.
• B. Instruct the client to report this symptom to the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Advise the client to stop taking the medication.
• D. Discontinue the amiodarone immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Blurred vision is a potential side effect of amiodarone. Instructing the client to report this symptom to the healthcare provider immediately is the most appropriate response. Choice A is incorrect because although blurred vision can be a common side effect of amiodarone, it should not be dismissed without further evaluation. Choice C is incorrect as advising the client to stop taking the medication without consulting the healthcare provider can be dangerous and is not the first course of action. Choice D is too drastic as discontinuing the medication should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider after proper evaluation.

3. The healthcare provider is administering IV nitroglycerin to a patient for chest pain. What is the most critical parameter to monitor?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Oxygen saturation
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Blood pressure.' Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that can cause a rapid drop in blood pressure, leading to hypotension. Monitoring the blood pressure is crucial to prevent potential complications such as hypotension-induced dizziness, syncope, or organ hypoperfusion. While heart rate, oxygen saturation, and respiratory rate are important parameters to monitor in a clinical setting, the immediate concern with IV nitroglycerin administration is the risk of hypotension, making blood pressure the most critical parameter to assess.

4. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.

5. What type of medication is used to reduce high blood pressure by relaxing the blood vessels?

• A. Calcium channel blocker
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. ACE inhibitor
• D. Diuretic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calcium channel blockers are medications that reduce high blood pressure by relaxing the blood vessels, facilitating easier blood flow through the vessels. Beta-blockers work by reducing the heart rate and the heart's workload. ACE inhibitors help relax blood vessels by blocking the production of a chemical that narrows blood vessels. Diuretics help the body get rid of excess sodium and water to lower blood pressure, but they do not directly relax blood vessels like calcium channel blockers do.

Similar Questions