Nursing Elites

1. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

• A. Foods high in potassium
• B. Foods high in sodium
• C. Foods high in calcium
• D. Foods high in chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.

2. The nurse is teaching a client about the side effects of beta blockers. What is the most important side effect to monitor?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important side effect to monitor when a client is on beta blockers is hypotension. Beta blockers can cause a significant drop in blood pressure, especially at the initiation of therapy. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications such as dizziness, syncope, or falls. While bradycardia can also occur with beta blockers, hypotension takes precedence due to its immediate impact on perfusion. Hyperkalemia is not a common side effect of beta blockers. Tachycardia is actually a condition that beta blockers aim to treat, so it is not a side effect to monitor.

3. For what reason might the nurse be given an order to administer milrinone (Primacor)?

• A. For congestive heart failure
• B. For hypertension
• C. For cardiac arrhythmias
• D. For bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Milrinone is commonly prescribed for congestive heart failure to help improve cardiac function and alleviate symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as milrinone is not typically used for hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias, or bradycardia. It is specifically indicated for congestive heart failure for short-term management.

4. Which condition involves the tearing of the aorta, leading to severe pain and internal bleeding?

• A. Aortic dissection
• B. Aneurysm
• C. Stroke
• D. Myocardial infarction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition where the inner layer of the aorta tears, causing severe chest or back pain and internal bleeding, requiring immediate medical attention. Choice B, aneurysm, involves a bulging or weakening of a blood vessel wall, which is different from a tear in the aorta. Choices C and D, stroke and myocardial infarction, do not directly involve the tearing of the aorta and are distinct conditions.

5. Which condition is characterized by the narrowing or blockage of arteries that supply blood to the heart by plaque?

• A. Coronary artery disease (CAD)
• B. Atherosclerosis
• C. Peripheral artery disease
• D. Congestive heart failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Coronary artery disease (CAD). CAD specifically refers to the condition where the arteries supplying blood to the heart become narrowed or blocked by plaque buildup. Choice B, Atherosclerosis, is a general term for the hardening and narrowing of arteries due to plaque buildup but does not specifically mention the heart. Choice C, Peripheral artery disease, involves narrowing of arteries that supply blood to areas other than the heart. Choice D, Congestive heart failure, is a condition where the heart is unable to pump blood effectively but is not primarily caused by narrowed or blocked arteries.

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