the client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam

1. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.

2. What is a severe and often sudden allergic reaction that can lead to breathing difficulties and anaphylactic shock?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Anaphylaxis is the correct answer. It is a severe allergic reaction that can result in difficulty breathing, a drop in blood pressure, and even anaphylactic shock if not treated promptly. Choice B, allergic rhinitis, is characterized by symptoms such as a runny or stuffy nose, sneezing, and itching. Choice C, bronchospasm, refers to the sudden constriction of the muscles in the walls of the bronchioles, leading to breathing difficulties. Choice D, asthma attack, involves the inflammation and narrowing of the airways, resulting in symptoms like wheezing, coughing, and chest tightness.

3. What procedure uses a catheter to open blocked coronary arteries and improve blood flow to the heart muscle?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Angioplasty. Angioplasty is a procedure where a catheter is used to open blocked coronary arteries and may involve the insertion of a stent to improve blood flow to the heart muscle. Stent placement (B) is a related procedure but specifically refers to the insertion of a stent. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) (C) is a surgical procedure that uses blood vessels to bypass blocked coronary arteries. Valve replacement (D) is a different procedure that involves replacing a heart valve, not opening blocked coronary arteries.

4. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client on an ACE inhibitor. What lab value is most important to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. When a client is on an ACE inhibitor, it is crucial to monitor potassium levels because ACE inhibitors can lead to an increase in potassium, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice B) is not as critical in this scenario. Creatinine levels (Choice C) are important for assessing kidney function but are not the most crucial lab value to monitor with ACE inhibitors. Calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly affected by ACE inhibitors and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

5. The client on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.5 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to administer vitamin K. Vitamin K helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, thus lowering the INR and reducing the risk of bleeding. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is not sufficient to address the immediate high INR level. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the risk of bleeding. While monitoring the client's INR closely (choice D) is important, immediate action is required to address the critically high INR level, making the administration of vitamin K the priority intervention.

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