Nursing Elites

1. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

• A. Foods high in potassium
• B. Foods high in sodium
• C. Foods high in calcium
• D. Foods high in chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.

2. What is the condition where the lungs become filled with fluid, often due to heart failure, making it difficult to breathe?

• A. Pulmonary edema
• B. Pleural effusion
• C. Pulmonary hypertension
• D. Pneumothorax

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pulmonary edema is the correct answer. It occurs when fluid fills the lungs, usually due to heart failure, leading to breathing difficulties. Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid around the lungs, not inside. Pulmonary hypertension is high blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs, and pneumothorax is the presence of air between the lung and chest wall.

3. What is a type of medication that helps to prevent blood clots by thinning the blood?

• A. Anticoagulant
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. ACE inhibitor
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Anticoagulants are medications specifically designed to prevent blood clots by thinning the blood. They work by interfering with the body's blood clotting process. Beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, and calcium channel blockers are medications used for different purposes such as managing blood pressure, heart conditions, and regulating heart rhythm, respectively. However, they do not have the primary function of preventing blood clots like anticoagulants.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin to a client. What lab value should be monitored?

• A. PT/INR
• B. aPTT
• C. Platelet count
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct lab value that should be monitored when administering heparin is the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and aPTT is a sensitive measure to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Monitoring aPTT helps in adjusting the heparin dose to maintain the desired anticoagulant effect. PT/INR is more specific to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count and hemoglobin levels are important parameters to assess bleeding tendencies and oxygen-carrying capacity but are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

5. What is the procedure where a catheter is used to open a blocked or narrowed coronary artery, often involving the placement of a stent?

• A. Angioplasty
• B. Valve replacement
• C. Stent placement
• D. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Angioplasty. Angioplasty is a procedure where a catheter is used to open a blocked or narrowed coronary artery, often involving the placement of a stent to keep the artery open and improve blood flow to the heart. Choice B, Valve replacement, is incorrect as it involves replacing a heart valve, not opening a blocked artery. Choice C, Stent placement, is similar to angioplasty but not as specific, as it does not involve the catheter-based procedure. Choice D, Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), is a different procedure where blocked arteries are bypassed using a blood vessel from another part of the body.

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