ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam
1. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?
- A. Foods high in potassium
- B. Foods high in sodium
- C. Foods high in calcium
- D. Foods high in chloride
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.
2. What is the ability of cardiac cells to respond to an impulse by transmitting the impulse along cell membranes?
- A. Contractility
- B. Automaticity
- C. Conductivity
- D. Rhythmicity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Conductivity. Conductivity refers to the ability of cardiac cells to transmit impulses along cell membranes. Contractility (Choice A) is the ability of cardiac cells to contract in response to an electrical stimulus, not transmit impulses. Automaticity (Choice B) is the ability of cardiac cells to spontaneously generate electrical impulses. Rhythmicity (Choice D) refers to the regular generation of electrical impulses by the heart's pacemaker cells, not the transmission of impulses along cell membranes.
3. Which of the following is a chronic lung disease that includes conditions such as chronic bronchitis and emphysema, characterized by obstructed airflow from the lungs?
- A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
- B. Pulmonary fibrosis
- C. Asthma
- D. Pneumonia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). COPD is a chronic lung disease that encompasses conditions like chronic bronchitis and emphysema. These conditions lead to obstructed airflow from the lungs, causing symptoms such as cough, shortness of breath, and wheezing. Choice B, Pulmonary fibrosis, involves scarring of the lung tissue, leading to breathing difficulties but is not specifically characterized by obstructed airflow like COPD. Asthma (Choice C) is a chronic condition characterized by airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction, not always resulting in obstructed airflow. Pneumonia (Choice D) is an acute infection of the lung tissue, causing symptoms like fever, cough, and difficulty breathing, but is not a chronic condition like COPD.
4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin to a client. What lab value should be monitored?
- A. PT/INR
- B. aPTT
- C. Platelet count
- D. Hemoglobin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct lab value that should be monitored when administering heparin is the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and aPTT is a sensitive measure to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Monitoring aPTT helps in adjusting the heparin dose to maintain the desired anticoagulant effect. PT/INR is more specific to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count and hemoglobin levels are important parameters to assess bleeding tendencies and oxygen-carrying capacity but are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.
5. The client is receiving intravenous dopamine. What is the most important nursing assessment?
- A. Monitor heart rate and rhythm
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Monitor respiratory rate
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor heart rate and rhythm when a client is receiving intravenous dopamine. Dopamine is known to potentially cause arrhythmias, making this assessment crucial. While monitoring blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation are important nursing assessments, they are not the most critical when dopamine is being administered.
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