ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam
1. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?
- A. Foods high in potassium
- B. Foods high in sodium
- C. Foods high in calcium
- D. Foods high in chloride
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.
2. The nurse is teaching a client about the side effects of beta blockers. What is the most important side effect to monitor?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important side effect to monitor when a client is on beta blockers is hypotension. Beta blockers can cause a significant drop in blood pressure, especially at the initiation of therapy. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications such as dizziness, syncope, or falls. While bradycardia can also occur with beta blockers, hypotension takes precedence due to its immediate impact on perfusion. Hyperkalemia is not a common side effect of beta blockers. Tachycardia is actually a condition that beta blockers aim to treat, so it is not a side effect to monitor.
3. This is a chronic condition where the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs.
- A. Heart failure
- B. Cardiomyopathy
- C. Myocarditis
- D. Pericarditis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart failure. Heart failure is a chronic condition characterized by the heart's inability to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs, resulting in symptoms such as fatigue, shortness of breath, and fluid retention. Choice B, Cardiomyopathy, refers to diseases of the heart muscle that can lead to heart failure but is not the specific term for the condition described. Choices C and D, Myocarditis and Pericarditis, respectively, are conditions involving inflammation of the heart muscle or the lining around the heart, which can cause heart failure as a complication but are not the primary condition described in the question.
4. The nurse is preparing to administer a beta blocker to a client with hypertension. What is the priority assessment?
- A. Check the client's heart rate.
- B. Check the client's blood pressure.
- C. Check the client's respiratory rate.
- D. Check the client's temperature.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's blood pressure. Before administering a beta blocker to a client with hypertension, assessing the blood pressure is crucial because beta blockers can cause hypotension, potentially leading to adverse effects. Checking the heart rate may also be important but is secondary to monitoring the blood pressure in this scenario. Respiratory rate and temperature assessments are not directly related to assessing the client's response to a beta blocker in hypertension management, making choices C and D less relevant.
5. When administering furosemide (Lasix) to a client, which lab value is most important to monitor?
- A. Potassium
- B. Sodium
- C. Calcium
- D. Chloride
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering furosemide (Lasix), it is crucial to monitor potassium levels closely. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent adverse effects associated with low potassium, such as cardiac arrhythmias. While monitoring sodium, calcium, and chloride levels may also be important in certain situations, potassium is the most critical to monitor when administering furosemide.
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