Nursing Elites

1. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

• A. Foods high in potassium
• B. Foods high in sodium
• C. Foods high in calcium
• D. Foods high in chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.

2. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client receiving lidocaine IV. What side effect is the healthcare provider most concerned about?

• A. Severe headache
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Seizures
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Seizures are the most concerning side effect of lidocaine IV administration due to its potential to indicate lidocaine toxicity, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiovascular collapse. Headache, nausea, and tremors are not typically associated with lidocaine IV and are less concerning compared to seizures in this context.

3. Which condition is characterized by the lungs becoming scarred and stiff, leading to difficulty breathing and inadequate oxygen intake into the bloodstream?

• A. Pulmonary fibrosis
• B. Cystic fibrosis
• C. COPD
• D. Tuberculosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Pulmonary fibrosis. Pulmonary fibrosis is a lung disease where lung tissue is damaged and scarred, resulting in breathing difficulties and decreased oxygen transfer into the bloodstream. Cystic fibrosis (B) is a genetic disorder primarily affecting the lungs and digestive system, not causing lung scarring. COPD (C) includes conditions like chronic bronchitis and emphysema but doesn't specifically involve lung scarring. Tuberculosis (D) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but doesn't cause lung tissue scarring and stiffness as seen in pulmonary fibrosis.

4. What is a condition where the lung's alveoli are permanently enlarged and damaged, leading to shortness of breath?

• A. Emphysema
• B. Bronchitis
• C. Atelectasis
• D. Pulmonary fibrosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Emphysema is the correct answer. It is a chronic lung condition characterized by the permanent enlargement and damage of the alveoli, leading to shortness of breath and impaired oxygen exchange. Bronchitis is the inflammation of the bronchial tubes, not specifically related to alveolar damage. Atelectasis is the collapse of lung tissue, not enlargement. Pulmonary fibrosis involves scarring and thickening of lung tissue, different from the alveolar damage seen in emphysema.

5. What structures hold up the AV valves and are anchored to the ventricular wall by the papillary muscles?

• A. Chordae tendineae
• B. Papillary muscles
• C. Semilunar valves
• D. Aortic valve

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chordae tendineae. Chordae tendineae are fibrous cords that connect the AV valves to the papillary muscles, preventing the valves from inverting during ventricular contraction. Papillary muscles (choice B) anchor the chordae tendineae to the ventricular wall but do not hold up the AV valves directly. Semilunar valves (choice C) are located between the ventricles and the major arteries and are not involved in holding up the AV valves. The aortic valve (choice D) is one of the semilunar valves and is not responsible for holding up the AV valves.

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