Nursing Elites

1. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

• A. Foods high in potassium
• B. Foods high in sodium
• C. Foods high in calcium
• D. Foods high in chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.

2. The client is on spironolactone (Aldactone) and has a potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer potassium supplements.
• C. Continue the spironolactone as ordered.
• D. Increase the dose of spironolactone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L is high, indicating hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Therefore, the priority action is to hold the medication to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia and notify the healthcare provider for further guidance. Choice B is incorrect because administering potassium supplements would worsen hyperkalemia. Choice C is incorrect because continuing spironolactone could lead to a further increase in potassium levels. Choice D is incorrect because increasing the dose of spironolactone would exacerbate the hyperkalemia.

3. What is a condition where the heart's ability to pump blood is decreased, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs and other parts of the body?

• A. Heart failure
• B. Cardiomyopathy
• C. Pericarditis
• D. Myocarditis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, heart failure. Heart failure is a condition where the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to fluid accumulation in the lungs and other areas. Choice B, Cardiomyopathy, refers to diseases of the heart muscle. Choices C and D, Pericarditis and Myocarditis, respectively, are conditions involving inflammation of the outer lining of the heart and the heart muscle itself, which may not always directly result in decreased pumping ability like heart failure does.

4. This is a procedure where a small mesh tube is inserted into an artery to keep it open and improve blood flow.

• A. Stent placement
• B. Angioplasty
• C. Bypass surgery
• D. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stent placement is a procedure where a small mesh tube (stent) is inserted into an artery to keep it open and improve blood flow, often following angioplasty.

5. A client on a beta blocker has a heart rate of 52 bpm. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer the beta blocker as ordered.
• C. Increase the dose of the beta blocker.
• D. Continue to monitor the client and reassess in 30 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. A heart rate of 52 bpm is low, and beta blockers can further decrease the heart rate, potentially causing harm. Therefore, withholding the medication and promptly informing the healthcare provider is crucial for further assessment and possible adjustment of the treatment plan. Administering the beta blocker as ordered (Choice B) can exacerbate the bradycardia. Increasing the dose of the beta blocker (Choice C) would further suppress the heart rate. Continuing to monitor the client and reassessing in 30 minutes (Choice D) might delay necessary interventions and increase the risk of complications in a client with a heart rate of 52 bpm.

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