the client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam

1. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.

2. The client on digoxin has a potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L is considered low and can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Holding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent adverse effects. Administering the digoxin as ordered (Choice B) would put the client at a higher risk for toxicity. Increasing the dose of digoxin (Choice C) is not appropriate when the client's potassium level is low. Administering potassium supplements (Choice D) may be necessary but is not the priority action in this situation.

3. What is the term used to describe a condition where the blood flow to the brain is temporarily interrupted, often referred to as a 'mini-stroke'?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Transient ischemic attack (TIA). A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is often called a 'mini-stroke' because it is characterized by a temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain, resulting in stroke-like symptoms that typically resolve within a short period. Choice B, 'Stroke,' is incorrect because a stroke involves a more prolonged interruption of blood flow, leading to lasting brain damage. Choices C and D, 'Myocardial infarction' and 'Pulmonary embolism,' are unrelated conditions involving the heart and lungs, respectively, and do not describe a temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain.

4. What is a condition characterized by episodes of severe, acute shortness of breath, often occurring at night?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is the correct answer. It is characterized by sudden episodes of severe shortness of breath during sleep, often waking the individual. Choice B, Sleep apnea, involves pauses in breathing during sleep but does not usually present with acute shortness of breath. Choice C, Orthopnea, refers to shortness of breath that occurs when lying flat and is relieved by sitting up. Choice D, Dyspnea, is a general term for difficult or labored breathing and does not specifically describe acute episodes at night.

5. The client is on enalapril (Vasotec) for hypertension. What side effect is most commonly associated with this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like enalapril. ACE inhibitors can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to irritation of the respiratory tract and resulting in a persistent dry cough. Hypotension (choice B) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common than a dry cough. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is another side effect of ACE inhibitors, but it is not the most commonly associated one. Headache (choice D) is not a common side effect of enalapril compared to a dry cough. Therefore, the most commonly associated side effect with enalapril is a dry cough.

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