Nursing Elites

1. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

• A. Foods high in potassium
• B. Foods high in sodium
• C. Foods high in calcium
• D. Foods high in chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.

2. What is a chronic condition where the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs and other parts of the body?

• A. Heart failure
• B. Myocardial infarction
• C. Pericarditis
• D. Pulmonary edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart failure. Heart failure is a chronic condition characterized by the heart's inability to pump blood effectively, resulting in fluid accumulation in the lungs and other body tissues. Myocardial infarction (choice B) refers to a heart attack caused by a blocked coronary artery, leading to damage of heart muscle tissue. Pericarditis (choice C) is the inflammation of the pericardium, the protective sac around the heart. Pulmonary edema (choice D) is a condition where fluid builds up in the lungs, often as a result of heart failure.

3. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client on an ACE inhibitor. What lab value is most important to monitor?

• A. Potassium
• B. Sodium
• C. Creatinine
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. When a client is on an ACE inhibitor, it is crucial to monitor potassium levels because ACE inhibitors can lead to an increase in potassium, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice B) is not as critical in this scenario. Creatinine levels (Choice C) are important for assessing kidney function but are not the most crucial lab value to monitor with ACE inhibitors. Calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly affected by ACE inhibitors and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

4. The nurse is giving the client digoxin for heart failure and recognizes that the drug has what type of effect on the heart?

• A. Negative inotropic, negative chronotropic effect
• B. Positive inotropic, negative chronotropic effect
• C. Negative inotropic, positive chronotropic effect
• D. Positive inotropic, positive chronotropic effect

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Positive inotropic, negative chronotropic effect. Digoxin strengthens the heart muscle, providing a positive inotropic effect, which increases the force of contraction. It also decreases the heart rate, having a negative chronotropic effect. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin has a positive inotropic effect, not a negative inotropic effect. Choice C is incorrect as digoxin does not have a positive chronotropic effect but a negative one. Choice D is incorrect because while digoxin has a positive inotropic effect, it does not have a positive chronotropic effect.

5. The client on atorvastatin (Lipitor) should be advised to report which of the following symptoms?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Headache
• C. Nausea
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle pain. Muscle pain can be a sign of rhabdomyolysis, a serious side effect of statins like atorvastatin. Rhabdomyolysis is a condition where muscle fibers break down rapidly and release their contents into the bloodstream, which can lead to kidney damage. Headache, nausea, and dizziness are not commonly associated with atorvastatin use and are less likely to indicate a serious adverse reaction compared to muscle pain.

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