the client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam

1. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.

2. The nurse is administering nitroglycerin IV to a client with chest pain. What is the most important parameter to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. When administering nitroglycerin IV to a client with chest pain, monitoring blood pressure is crucial as nitroglycerin can cause significant hypotension. While heart rate, oxygen saturation, and respiratory rate are important parameters to assess, blood pressure takes precedence in this scenario due to the potential hypotensive effects of nitroglycerin.

3. The client on digoxin has a potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L is considered low and can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Holding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent adverse effects. Administering the digoxin as ordered (Choice B) would put the client at a higher risk for toxicity. Increasing the dose of digoxin (Choice C) is not appropriate when the client's potassium level is low. Administering potassium supplements (Choice D) may be necessary but is not the priority action in this situation.

4. Which of the following is a chronic lung disease that includes conditions such as chronic bronchitis and emphysema, characterized by obstructed airflow from the lungs?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). COPD is a chronic lung disease that encompasses conditions like chronic bronchitis and emphysema. These conditions lead to obstructed airflow from the lungs, causing symptoms such as cough, shortness of breath, and wheezing. Choice B, Pulmonary fibrosis, involves scarring of the lung tissue, leading to breathing difficulties but is not specifically characterized by obstructed airflow like COPD. Asthma (Choice C) is a chronic condition characterized by airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction, not always resulting in obstructed airflow. Pneumonia (Choice D) is an acute infection of the lung tissue, causing symptoms like fever, cough, and difficulty breathing, but is not a chronic condition like COPD.

5. What is the procedure where a catheter is used to open a blocked or narrowed coronary artery, often involving the placement of a stent?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Angioplasty. Angioplasty is a procedure where a catheter is used to open a blocked or narrowed coronary artery, often involving the placement of a stent to keep the artery open and improve blood flow to the heart. Choice B, Valve replacement, is incorrect as it involves replacing a heart valve, not opening a blocked artery. Choice C, Stent placement, is similar to angioplasty but not as specific, as it does not involve the catheter-based procedure. Choice D, Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), is a different procedure where blocked arteries are bypassed using a blood vessel from another part of the body.

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