Nursing Elites

1. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

• A. Foods high in potassium
• B. Foods high in sodium
• C. Foods high in calcium
• D. Foods high in chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.

2. The nurse is administering a calcium channel blocker. What is the primary effect of this medication on the cardiovascular system?

• A. Decreases heart rate
• B. Increases heart rate
• C. Increases blood pressure
• D. Decreases blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing the blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. Choice A, 'Decreases heart rate,' is incorrect because calcium channel blockers do not significantly affect heart rate. Choice B, 'Increases heart rate,' is incorrect as calcium channel blockers do not have a primary effect of increasing heart rate. Choice C, 'Increases blood pressure,' is incorrect as the primary effect of calcium channel blockers is to decrease blood pressure by vasodilation.

3. Which disease is characterized by the damage to the alveoli in the lungs, leading to breathlessness?

• A. Emphysema
• B. Pulmonary fibrosis
• C. Lung cancer
• D. Lung abscess

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Emphysema. Emphysema is a lung condition characterized by the damage to the air sacs (alveoli) in the lungs, which results in breathlessness and reduced lung function. Pulmonary fibrosis (B) is a condition where lung tissue becomes damaged and scarred, leading to stiffness in the lungs. Lung cancer (C) is a malignancy affecting the lungs, which can cause various symptoms depending on the stage. Lung abscess (D) is a localized collection of pus within the lung tissue, typically caused by a bacterial infection.

4. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

5. What is a condition where the heart is unable to relax properly between beats, reducing its ability to fill with blood?

• A. Diastolic heart failure
• B. Systolic heart failure
• C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diastolic heart failure. In diastolic heart failure, the heart is unable to relax properly between beats, leading to a reduced ability to fill with blood. This condition primarily affects the heart's filling function rather than its pumping function, which is characteristic of systolic heart failure (choice B). Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (choice C) involves the abnormal thickening of the heart muscle, while restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice D) is characterized by the heart muscle becoming stiff and less compliant. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect in the context of a heart condition where relaxation between beats is impaired.

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