ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam
1. What does the PR interval measure?
- A. Time it takes for the electrical impulse to travel from the atria to the ventricles
- B. Measurement of ventricular depolarization
- C. Duration of ventricular repolarization
- D. Segment representing the time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The PR interval measures the time it takes for the electrical impulse to travel from the atria to the ventricles. It is crucial in diagnosing heart rhythm disorders, as abnormalities in this interval can indicate conduction abnormalities between the atria and ventricles. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, the QT interval represents the duration of ventricular repolarization, and the ST segment represents the time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization.
2. When providing discharge instructions to a client prescribed Prednisone, which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. Increase your intake of dairy products.
- C. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- D. Decrease your intake of protein.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Prednisone can lead to potassium depletion, making it essential to consume foods high in potassium, such as bananas, oranges, and spinach, to maintain electrolyte balance and prevent complications. Choice B is incorrect because increasing dairy products is not specifically necessary when taking Prednisone. Choice C is wrong as foods high in vitamin K are not contraindicated with Prednisone. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to decrease protein intake when prescribed Prednisone.
3. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. Which of the following symptoms shouldn't the nurse expect to observe during withdrawal?
- A. Tremors
- B. Hallucinations
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During alcohol withdrawal, the nurse should expect to observe symptoms such as tremors, hallucinations, and diaphoresis. Seizures may also occur during severe withdrawal. Bradycardia is not typically associated with alcohol withdrawal; instead, tachycardia (an increased heart rate) is more commonly observed due to the stimulant effects of alcohol withdrawal on the sympathetic nervous system.
4. During the Emergent phase of a burn, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance in a burned client is:
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the Emergent phase of burns, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance is Hypokalemia. This is due to the shift of potassium from the intracellular space to the extracellular space, leading to low potassium levels in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Hyperkalemia, Hypernatremia, and Hyponatremia are not typically associated with the Emergent phase of burns and do not pose the same level of risk as Hypokalemia in this context.
5. A nurse is preparing to perform tracheostomy care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Apply a sterile dressing.
- B. Suction the tracheostomy.
- C. Remove the inner cannula.
- D. Clean the stoma with sterile saline.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Suctioning the tracheostomy should be performed first to clear the airway of secretions and ensure proper oxygenation before proceeding with other care. This helps maintain a patent airway and prevent complications such as aspiration. Applying a sterile dressing, removing the inner cannula, or cleaning the stoma can follow after ensuring adequate airway clearance through suctioning.
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