this is a test that measures the time it takes for the electrical impulse to travel from the atria to the ventricles
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam

1. What does the PR interval measure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The PR interval measures the time it takes for the electrical impulse to travel from the atria to the ventricles. It is crucial in diagnosing heart rhythm disorders, as abnormalities in this interval can indicate conduction abnormalities between the atria and ventricles. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, the QT interval represents the duration of ventricular repolarization, and the ST segment represents the time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin to a client. What lab value should be monitored?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct lab value that should be monitored when administering heparin is the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and aPTT is a sensitive measure to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Monitoring aPTT helps in adjusting the heparin dose to maintain the desired anticoagulant effect. PT/INR is more specific to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count and hemoglobin levels are important parameters to assess bleeding tendencies and oxygen-carrying capacity but are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

3. The nurse is caring for a client on digoxin with a heart rate of 48 bpm. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's priority action should be to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A heart rate of 48 bpm is low, and digoxin, being a medication that can further decrease the heart rate, should be withheld. Administering the digoxin as ordered (Choice B) would not be appropriate in this situation as it can exacerbate bradycardia. Atropine (Choice C) is not the initial treatment for this scenario; holding the digoxin is the first action. Increasing the dose of digoxin (Choice D) would be contraindicated due to the client's bradycardia. Therefore, the correct action is to hold the digoxin and inform the healthcare provider for further guidance.

4. Which condition involves the enlargement and weakening of the left ventricle of the heart, leading to reduced pumping ability?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dilated cardiomyopathy. Dilated cardiomyopathy is characterized by the enlargement and weakening of the left ventricle of the heart, which results in a reduced ability to pump blood effectively. Choice B, Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, involves thickening of the heart muscle, not enlargement. Choice C, Restrictive cardiomyopathy, is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, not enlargement. Choice D, Pericarditis, refers to inflammation of the pericardium, the lining surrounding the heart, and does not involve enlargement and weakening of the left ventricle.

5. A client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client on spironolactone with a potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is to hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further elevate potassium levels, which are already high. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice B) would exacerbate the hyperkalemia. Continuing the spironolactone as ordered (Choice C) could lead to worsening hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (Choice D) would be contraindicated in the presence of elevated potassium levels.

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