Nursing Elites

1. What does the PR interval measure?

• A. Time it takes for the electrical impulse to travel from the atria to the ventricles
• B. Measurement of ventricular depolarization
• C. Duration of ventricular repolarization
• D. Segment representing the time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The PR interval measures the time it takes for the electrical impulse to travel from the atria to the ventricles. It is crucial in diagnosing heart rhythm disorders, as abnormalities in this interval can indicate conduction abnormalities between the atria and ventricles. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, the QT interval represents the duration of ventricular repolarization, and the ST segment represents the time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization.

2. The client on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Administer vitamin K.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.5 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to administer vitamin K. Vitamin K helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, thus lowering the INR and reducing the risk of bleeding. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is not sufficient to address the immediate high INR level. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the risk of bleeding. While monitoring the client's INR closely (choice D) is important, immediate action is required to address the critically high INR level, making the administration of vitamin K the priority intervention.

3. Which condition is characterized by the sudden onset of shortness of breath, often occurring at night and associated with heart failure?

• A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
• B. Sleep apnea
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is the correct answer. It is characterized by the sudden onset of shortness of breath during sleep, often associated with heart failure. Choice B, Sleep apnea, involves pauses in breathing during sleep but is not specifically associated with heart failure. Choice C, Orthopnea, is difficulty breathing that occurs when lying down and is relieved by sitting up, not necessarily associated with heart failure. Choice D, Dyspnea, is a general term for difficulty breathing and does not specifically describe the sudden onset at night associated with heart failure as seen in paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.

4. Identify the three layers of the heart:

• A. Endocardium, Myocardium, Epicardium
• B. Epicardium, Pericardium, Endocardium
• C. Myocardium, Endocardium, Pericardium
• D. Pericardium, Myocardium, Endocardium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Endocardium, Myocardium, Epicardium. The heart consists of three main layers: the endocardium, which lines the inner chambers of the heart; the myocardium, the middle layer responsible for the heart's pumping action; and the epicardium, the outermost layer that protects the heart. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not list the heart's layers in the correct order or combination.

5. The client is given an alpha agonist. What might it be used for?

• A. For hemostasis
• B. To dilate the arteries
• C. To dilate the veins
• D. To decrease afterload

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alpha agonists are used for hemostasis to help control bleeding by constricting blood vessels, leading to decreased blood flow to the area. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as alpha agonists do not typically dilate arteries, dilate veins, or decrease afterload.

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