ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers
1. The nurse is teaching a client about the side effects of beta blockers. What is the most important side effect to monitor?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important side effect to monitor when a client is on beta blockers is hypotension. Beta blockers can cause a significant drop in blood pressure, especially at the initiation of therapy. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications such as dizziness, syncope, or falls. While bradycardia can also occur with beta blockers, hypotension takes precedence due to its immediate impact on perfusion. Hyperkalemia is not a common side effect of beta blockers. Tachycardia is actually a condition that beta blockers aim to treat, so it is not a side effect to monitor.
2. This heart condition is characterized by decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion, which can lead to organ failure.
- A. Cardiogenic shock
- B. Myocardial infarction
- C. Endocarditis
- D. Pericarditis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiogenic shock. Cardiogenic shock is a severe condition characterized by the heart's inability to pump enough blood, leading to decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion, which can result in organ failure. Choice B, Myocardial infarction, specifically refers to a blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle. Choices C and D, Endocarditis and Pericarditis, do not directly involve decreased cardiac output leading to organ failure, making them incorrect in the context of the symptoms described in the question.
3. What is a condition where the heart muscle becomes abnormally enlarged, thickened, or stiffened, often leading to heart failure?
- A. Cardiomyopathy
- B. Pericarditis
- C. Aortic stenosis
- D. Mitral valve prolapse
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cardiomyopathy is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement, thickening, or stiffening of the heart muscle, which can lead to heart failure. Pericarditis (choice B) is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart, not directly related to heart muscle enlargement. Aortic stenosis (choice C) is the narrowing of the aortic valve opening, affecting blood flow from the heart, but not directly related to heart muscle enlargement. Mitral valve prolapse (choice D) is a condition where the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle doesn't close properly, causing blood to leak backward, and is not directly related to heart muscle enlargement.
4. Which medication is used to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes?
- A. ACE inhibitor
- B. Beta-blocker
- C. Diuretic
- D. Calcium channel blocker
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is an ACE inhibitor. ACE inhibitors are medications specifically designed to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks, strokes, and other cardiovascular events. Beta-blockers, diuretics, and calcium channel blockers are also used to treat high blood pressure, but ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in reducing the risk of heart attacks and strokes.
5. Where is the impulse from the SA node delayed, enabling atrial contraction to complete before the ventricles are stimulated and contract?
- A. AV node
- B. Bundle of His
- C. SA node
- D. Aorta
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is AV node. The AV node is responsible for delaying the impulse from the SA node, allowing the atria to contract before the ventricles. This delay ensures the effective pumping of blood in a coordinated manner. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Bundle of His is responsible for transmitting the impulse to the Purkinje fibers, the SA node is the pacemaker of the heart responsible for initiating the heartbeat, and the aorta is the main artery carrying oxygenated blood from the heart to the body, respectively, none of which are involved in delaying the impulse to allow atrial contraction before ventricular contraction.
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