ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers
1. The nurse is teaching a client about the side effects of beta blockers. What is the most important side effect to monitor?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important side effect to monitor when a client is on beta blockers is hypotension. Beta blockers can cause a significant drop in blood pressure, especially at the initiation of therapy. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications such as dizziness, syncope, or falls. While bradycardia can also occur with beta blockers, hypotension takes precedence due to its immediate impact on perfusion. Hyperkalemia is not a common side effect of beta blockers. Tachycardia is actually a condition that beta blockers aim to treat, so it is not a side effect to monitor.
2. What procedure involves inserting a needle into the pleural space to remove excess fluid and help the patient breathe more easily?
- A. Thoracentesis
- B. Bronchoscopy
- C. Spirometry
- D. Arterial blood gas (ABG)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Thoracentesis is the correct answer. It is a procedure where a needle is inserted into the pleural space to remove excess fluid, aiding in easier breathing. Bronchoscopy (Choice B) is a procedure to visualize the airways and diagnose lung problems, not specifically for fluid drainage. Spirometry (Choice C) is a test to measure lung function, not a procedure for fluid removal. Arterial blood gas (ABG) (Choice D) is a blood test to assess oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood, not a procedure for draining fluid from the pleural space.
3. This is a test that measures the oxygen saturation level in the blood, often used to assess respiratory function.
- A. Pulse oximetry
- B. Spirometry
- C. Arterial blood gas (ABG)
- D. Lung function test
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Pulse oximetry. Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive test that measures the oxygen saturation level in the blood, helping to assess respiratory and cardiovascular function. Choice B, Spirometry, measures lung function by assessing airflow and volume. Choice C, Arterial blood gas (ABG), evaluates the acidity, oxygen, and carbon dioxide levels in the blood. Choice D, Lung function test, is a broad term that may include various tests to assess lung health, but specifically measuring oxygen saturation is done through pulse oximetry.
4. This is a more accurate indicator of tissue perfusion. It represents the cardiac output in terms of liters per minute per square meter of body surface area. Its normal range is 2.4-4 L/min.
- A. Cardiac Index
- B. Stroke volume
- C. Ejection fraction
- D. Cardiac output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac Index. Cardiac Index is a measure of cardiac output relative to body surface area, providing a more accurate assessment of tissue perfusion. It is calculated by dividing the cardiac output by the body surface area. The normal range for cardiac index is 2.4-4 L/min/m². Choice B, Stroke volume, refers to the amount of blood ejected by the heart in one contraction and is not adjusted for body surface area. Choice C, Ejection fraction, is the percentage of blood pumped out of the heart's ventricles with each contraction, not adjusted for body surface area. Choice D, Cardiac output, is the total volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute, without considering body surface area.
5. The client on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Administer vitamin K.
- B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
- C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
- D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 4.5 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to administer vitamin K. Vitamin K helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, thus lowering the INR and reducing the risk of bleeding. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is not sufficient to address the immediate high INR level. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the risk of bleeding. While monitoring the client's INR closely (choice D) is important, immediate action is required to address the critically high INR level, making the administration of vitamin K the priority intervention.
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