ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions
1. What is the amount of blood the heart pumps through the circulatory system in a minute?
- A. Cardiac output
- B. Stroke volume
- C. End-diastolic volume
- D. Ejection fraction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac output. Cardiac output is the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute. It is calculated by multiplying the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the heart in each beat) by the heart rate (number of heartbeats per minute). This question specifically asks for the total amount of blood pumped through the circulatory system in a minute, which is represented by cardiac output. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because stroke volume refers to the amount of blood pumped out of the heart in each beat, end-diastolic volume is the volume of blood in the heart at the end of diastole, and ejection fraction is the percentage of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction, not the total amount pumped per minute.
2. The nurse is administering an ACE inhibitor to a client. What is the most common side effect?
- A. Cough
- B. Dizziness
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to an increase in bradykinin levels. This irritating cough can be bothersome to clients and should be monitored. Choice B, Dizziness, is not the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors. While ACE inhibitors can cause hypotension (Choice C), cough is more prevalent. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common compared to cough.
3. What is the condition where the blood flow through the coronary arteries is reduced or blocked, leading to chest pain or heart attack?
- A. Coronary artery disease
- B. Atherosclerosis
- C. Pulmonary embolism
- D. Pulmonary hypertension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Coronary artery disease (CAD). CAD occurs when the coronary arteries are narrowed or blocked, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of chest pain or heart attack. Choice B, Atherosclerosis, is a condition characterized by the hardening and narrowing of arteries due to the buildup of plaque. Choices C and D, Pulmonary embolism and Pulmonary hypertension, involve issues related to the lungs and not the coronary arteries.
4. What are the pressure-sensitive structures located in the aortic and carotid bodies called?
- A. Baroreceptors
- B. Chemoreceptors
- C. Nociceptors
- D. Mechanoreceptors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Baroreceptors are the correct answer. Baroreceptors are specialized sensory receptors that detect changes in pressure within blood vessels. They are primarily located in the aortic arch and carotid sinuses, where they play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure. Chemoreceptors (Choice B) are receptors that detect chemical changes, not pressure changes. Nociceptors (Choice C) are responsible for detecting painful stimuli. Mechanoreceptors (Choice D) respond to mechanical stimuli such as touch, pressure, and vibration, but they are not specifically located in the aortic and carotid bodies.
5. The client on warfarin has an INR of 5.5. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
- B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
- C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
- D. Administer fresh frozen plasma.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 5.5 is significantly elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. The priority nursing action in this situation is to administer vitamin K as an antidote to reverse the effects of warfarin and lower the INR. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is important but not as immediate as administering vitamin K. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the bleeding risk. Administering fresh frozen plasma (choice D) is not the first-line treatment for high INR due to warfarin.
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