Nursing Elites

1. Which medication is used to prevent blood clots by thinning the blood, reducing the risk of stroke and heart attack?

• A. Anticoagulant
• B. ACE inhibitor
• C. Beta-blocker
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anticoagulant.' Anticoagulants are medications specifically designed to prevent blood clots by thinning the blood, which effectively reduces the risk of stroke, heart attack, and other cardiovascular events. Choices B, C, and D, which are ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers, respectively, do not have the primary mechanism of action to prevent blood clot formation. ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers are commonly used for managing hypertension and other cardiovascular conditions by different mechanisms of action.

2. What is a chronic condition where the heart muscle becomes weakened and enlarged, reducing its ability to pump blood effectively?

• A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
• B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• C. Myocarditis
• D. Pericarditis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dilated cardiomyopathy is characterized by the weakening and enlargement of the heart muscle, leading to its reduced ability to pump blood effectively. This condition is different from hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, which involves abnormal thickening of the heart muscle, myocarditis, which is inflammation of the heart muscle, and pericarditis, which is inflammation of the pericardium. Therefore, the correct answer is Dilated cardiomyopathy.

3. The client on warfarin has an INR of 5.5. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Administer fresh frozen plasma.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 5.5 is significantly elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. The priority nursing action in this situation is to administer vitamin K as an antidote to reverse the effects of warfarin and lower the INR. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is important but not as immediate as administering vitamin K. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the bleeding risk. Administering fresh frozen plasma (choice D) is not the first-line treatment for high INR due to warfarin.

4. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

5. A client on a beta blocker has a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer the beta blocker as ordered.
• C. Administer a diuretic to reduce blood pressure.
• D. Continue to monitor the client and reassess in 30 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. A blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is already low, and beta blockers can further decrease blood pressure. Administering the beta blocker can potentially worsen the situation, leading to complications. Administering a diuretic or continuing to monitor the client without taking immediate action could delay necessary intervention. Therefore, holding the beta blocker and involving the healthcare provider promptly is crucial in this scenario.

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