the client on spironolactone aldactone has a potassium level of 56 meql what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Physical Exam Cardiovascular System

1. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L is high, indicating hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further elevate potassium levels. Therefore, the priority action is to withhold the medication to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia and notify the healthcare provider for further management. Option B is incorrect because administering potassium supplements would worsen the hyperkalemia. Option C is incorrect as continuing spironolactone can lead to a further increase in potassium levels. Option D is incorrect as increasing the dose of spironolactone would be inappropriate in the presence of elevated potassium levels.

2. The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.

3. The client is given an alpha agonist. What might it be used for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alpha agonists are used for hemostasis to help control bleeding by constricting blood vessels, leading to decreased blood flow to the area. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as alpha agonists do not typically dilate arteries, dilate veins, or decrease afterload.

4. This medication type is used to relax and widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vasodilator. Vasodilators are medications that work by relaxing and widening blood vessels, which improves blood flow and reduces blood pressure. They are commonly used in the treatment of heart conditions. Anticoagulants (choice B) are medications that prevent blood clot formation, diuretics (choice C) increase urine production to reduce fluid retention, and beta-blockers (choice D) reduce heart rate and workload on the heart. These mechanisms differ from the action of vasodilators.

5. A client on a beta blocker has a heart rate of 52 bpm. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. A heart rate of 52 bpm is low, and beta blockers can further decrease the heart rate, potentially causing harm. Therefore, withholding the medication and promptly informing the healthcare provider is crucial for further assessment and possible adjustment of the treatment plan. Administering the beta blocker as ordered (Choice B) can exacerbate the bradycardia. Increasing the dose of the beta blocker (Choice C) would further suppress the heart rate. Continuing to monitor the client and reassessing in 30 minutes (Choice D) might delay necessary interventions and increase the risk of complications in a client with a heart rate of 52 bpm.

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