Nursing Elites

1. What is a condition where the lung's air sacs (alveoli) are damaged and enlarged, leading to breathlessness?

• A. Emphysema
• B. Chronic bronchitis
• C. Asthma
• D. Pulmonary fibrosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Emphysema is the correct answer. It is a condition where the air sacs in the lungs are damaged and enlarged, leading to breathlessness. Chronic bronchitis is characterized by inflammation of the bronchial tubes, not the alveoli. Asthma involves airway inflammation and constriction, not alveolar damage. Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition where lung tissue becomes thickened and scarred, different from the alveolar damage seen in emphysema.

2. The client is on a nitrate for angina. What is the most common side effect the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Headache
• B. Flushing
• C. Dizziness
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Headache. Nitrates commonly cause headaches as a side effect due to vasodilation. Flushing, dizziness, and nausea are less common side effects associated with nitrates. Flushing is more related to the dilation of blood vessels closer to the skin's surface, dizziness could occur but is not as common as headaches, and nausea is a less typical side effect of nitrates.

3. What is a severe and often sudden allergic reaction that can lead to breathing difficulties and anaphylactic shock?

• A. Anaphylaxis
• B. Allergic rhinitis
• C. Bronchospasm
• D. Asthma attack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Anaphylaxis is the correct answer. It is a severe allergic reaction that can result in difficulty breathing, a drop in blood pressure, and even anaphylactic shock if not treated promptly. Choice B, allergic rhinitis, is characterized by symptoms such as a runny or stuffy nose, sneezing, and itching. Choice C, bronchospasm, refers to the sudden constriction of the muscles in the walls of the bronchioles, leading to breathing difficulties. Choice D, asthma attack, involves the inflammation and narrowing of the airways, resulting in symptoms like wheezing, coughing, and chest tightness.

4. Which medication is used to prevent blood clots by thinning the blood, reducing the risk of stroke and heart attack?

• A. Anticoagulant
• B. ACE inhibitor
• C. Beta-blocker
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anticoagulant.' Anticoagulants are medications specifically designed to prevent blood clots by thinning the blood, which effectively reduces the risk of stroke, heart attack, and other cardiovascular events. Choices B, C, and D, which are ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers, respectively, do not have the primary mechanism of action to prevent blood clot formation. ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers are commonly used for managing hypertension and other cardiovascular conditions by different mechanisms of action.

5. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

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