ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers
1. Which term refers to the relaxation phase of the heart, during which the chambers fill with blood?
- A. Diastole
- B. Systole
- C. Refractoriness
- D. Automaticity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Diastole. Diastole is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart muscles relax, allowing the chambers to fill with blood. Choice B, Systole, is incorrect as systole is the contraction phase of the heart when blood is pumped out of the chambers. Choice C, Refractoriness, refers to a period during which the heart muscle is unresponsive to stimuli. Choice D, Automaticity, relates to the heart's ability to generate its own electrical impulses.
2. The nurse is teaching a client about side effects of ACE inhibitors. What is the most important side effect to monitor?
- A. Cough
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. ACE inhibitors commonly cause a persistent dry cough in patients. This side effect is important to monitor because it can indicate the development of angioedema, a serious adverse reaction that requires immediate medical attention. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors but is not typically the most important one to monitor. Hypotension (choice C) and dizziness (choice D) are also possible side effects of ACE inhibitors, but they are not as critical to monitor as the development of a persistent cough.
3. Which condition is characterized by the sudden onset of shortness of breath, often occurring at night and associated with heart failure?
- A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
- B. Sleep apnea
- C. Orthopnea
- D. Dyspnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is the correct answer. It is characterized by the sudden onset of shortness of breath during sleep, often associated with heart failure. Choice B, Sleep apnea, involves pauses in breathing during sleep but is not specifically associated with heart failure. Choice C, Orthopnea, is difficulty breathing that occurs when lying down and is relieved by sitting up, not necessarily associated with heart failure. Choice D, Dyspnea, is a general term for difficulty breathing and does not specifically describe the sudden onset at night associated with heart failure as seen in paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
4. Which medication is used to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes?
- A. ACE inhibitor
- B. Beta-blocker
- C. Diuretic
- D. Calcium channel blocker
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is an ACE inhibitor. ACE inhibitors are medications specifically designed to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks, strokes, and other cardiovascular events. Beta-blockers, diuretics, and calcium channel blockers are also used to treat high blood pressure, but ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in reducing the risk of heart attacks and strokes.
5. What is the condition where the heart's mitral valve does not close properly, allowing blood to leak backward into the left atrium?
- A. Mitral regurgitation
- B. Aortic stenosis
- C. Tricuspid regurgitation
- D. Pulmonary hypertension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Mitral regurgitation is the condition where the heart's mitral valve does not close properly, allowing blood to leak backward into the left atrium. This can result in symptoms like shortness of breath and fatigue. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aortic stenosis, tricuspid regurgitation, and pulmonary hypertension involve different heart valves or conditions, not the mitral valve specifically.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access