ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions Pdf
1. What is a condition where the heart is unable to relax properly between beats, reducing its ability to fill with blood?
- A. Diastolic heart failure
- B. Systolic heart failure
- C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diastolic heart failure. In diastolic heart failure, the heart is unable to relax properly between beats, leading to a reduced ability to fill with blood. This condition primarily affects the heart's filling function rather than its pumping function, which is characteristic of systolic heart failure (choice B). Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (choice C) involves the abnormal thickening of the heart muscle, while restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice D) is characterized by the heart muscle becoming stiff and less compliant. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect in the context of a heart condition where relaxation between beats is impaired.
2. Which of the following is a chronic respiratory disease characterized by the irreversible obstruction of airflow?
- A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
- B. Asthma
- C. Pulmonary edema
- D. Bronchiectasis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). COPD is a chronic respiratory disease where the airflow in the lungs becomes obstructed, making it difficult to breathe. Choice B, Asthma, is a different chronic respiratory condition characterized by reversible airflow obstruction and airway hyperresponsiveness. Choice C, Pulmonary edema, is a condition where fluid accumulates in the lungs, leading to difficulty in breathing but not irreversible airflow obstruction. Choice D, Bronchiectasis, is a condition characterized by abnormal widening of the bronchial tubes, leading to recurrent respiratory infections, but it is not specifically defined by irreversible airflow obstruction.
3. The client is on a beta blocker for hypertension. What should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Respiratory distress
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is on a beta blocker for hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia. Beta blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. Tachycardia (choice B) is unlikely as beta blockers have the opposite effect. Hypertension (choice C) is the condition being treated, not a side effect of beta blockers. Respiratory distress (choice D) is not a common effect of beta blockers and is not typically monitored in clients taking beta blockers.
4. Which condition involves the tearing of the aorta, leading to severe pain and internal bleeding?
- A. Aortic dissection
- B. Aneurysm
- C. Stroke
- D. Myocardial infarction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition where the inner layer of the aorta tears, causing severe chest or back pain and internal bleeding, requiring immediate medical attention. Choice B, aneurysm, involves a bulging or weakening of a blood vessel wall, which is different from a tear in the aorta. Choices C and D, stroke and myocardial infarction, do not directly involve the tearing of the aorta and are distinct conditions.
5. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?
- A. Bleeding
- B. Hypertension
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.
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