the nurse is caring for a client on enalapril vasotec what is the most important side effect to monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam Questions

1. The nurse is caring for a client on enalapril (Vasotec). What is the most important side effect to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor, and cough is a common side effect associated with this class of medication. Monitoring for cough is crucial as it can indicate the development of a potentially serious condition known as angioedema. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is not the most important side effect to monitor. Hypotension (choice C) and dizziness (choice D) are also potential side effects of enalapril; however, cough takes precedence due to its association with angioedema, a severe adverse reaction.

2. Which medication is used to prevent blood clots by thinning the blood, reducing the risk of stroke and heart attack?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anticoagulant.' Anticoagulants are medications specifically designed to prevent blood clots by thinning the blood, which effectively reduces the risk of stroke, heart attack, and other cardiovascular events. Choices B, C, and D, which are ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers, respectively, do not have the primary mechanism of action to prevent blood clot formation. ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers are commonly used for managing hypertension and other cardiovascular conditions by different mechanisms of action.

3. The client is on furosemide (Lasix) and has a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer potassium supplements. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss. Therefore, the priority action is to administer potassium supplements to correct the imbalance. Option B is incorrect because holding the furosemide without addressing the low potassium level could further worsen the imbalance. Option C is incorrect as continuing the current dose of furosemide without addressing the low potassium level could lead to complications. Option D is incorrect because decreasing the dose of furosemide does not directly address the low potassium level that needs immediate correction.

4. Which of the following is a chronic condition where the heart muscle is weakened and unable to pump blood effectively, often leading to heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dilated cardiomyopathy is characterized by the heart muscle being weakened and unable to pump blood effectively, ultimately resulting in heart failure. Choice B, Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, involves the heart muscle becoming abnormally thick, reducing the heart's efficiency. Choice C, Restrictive cardiomyopathy, refers to the heart becoming rigid and less able to fill with blood properly. Myocarditis, as in Choice D, is inflammation of the heart muscle usually caused by a viral infection and is different from the chronic weakening seen in dilated cardiomyopathy.

5. What is the approximate stroke volume of the heart?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Approximately 70 mL of blood per beat. The stroke volume of the heart is typically around 70 mL, indicating the volume of blood ejected from the left ventricle with each contraction. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the standard approximate stroke volume of the heart, which is around 70 mL per beat.

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