the client on furosemide lasix has a potassium level of 31 meql what is the nurses priority action
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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers

1. The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.

2. The client is being taught about the use of warfarin. What is the most important dietary instruction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin is a medication that works by decreasing the activity of vitamin K in the body to prevent blood clotting. Therefore, consuming foods high in vitamin K like green leafy vegetables can interfere with the medication's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing the intake of vitamin K-rich foods would counteract the effects of warfarin. Avoiding foods high in protein or increasing the intake of foods high in calcium are not specifically related to the use of warfarin.

3. What test measures the oxygen level in the blood, often used to monitor patients with respiratory or cardiovascular conditions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Pulse oximetry. Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive test that measures the oxygen saturation level in the blood, commonly used to monitor respiratory and cardiovascular health. Arterial blood gas (ABG) measures the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood, providing more detailed information than pulse oximetry. Echocardiogram is an ultrasound test used to visualize the heart's structure and function, while a chest X-ray is used to visualize the structures in the chest, such as the heart, lungs, and bones.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin to a client. What lab value should be monitored?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct lab value that should be monitored when administering heparin is the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and aPTT is a sensitive measure to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Monitoring aPTT helps in adjusting the heparin dose to maintain the desired anticoagulant effect. PT/INR is more specific to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count and hemoglobin levels are important parameters to assess bleeding tendencies and oxygen-carrying capacity but are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

5. What procedure uses a catheter to open up a blocked or narrowed coronary artery, often involving the placement of a stent?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Angioplasty. Angioplasty is a procedure that uses a catheter to open up a blocked or narrowed coronary artery, often involving the placement of a stent. Echocardiogram is a diagnostic test that uses sound waves to create images of the heart. CT angiography is a type of imaging test that looks at blood vessels, but it does not involve the placement of a stent. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) is a surgical procedure to improve blood flow to the heart muscle by bypassing blocked coronary arteries.

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