Nursing Elites

1. The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement.
• B. Hold the furosemide and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Continue the current dose of furosemide.
• D. Administer Digibind.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.

2. What is a type of heart disease that involves the thickening or stiffening of the heart muscle, reducing its ability to pump blood?

• A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• B. Dilated cardiomyopathy
• C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
• D. Arrhythmia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a type of heart disease characterized by the thickening or stiffening of the heart muscle, leading to a reduced ability to pump blood. This condition is different from dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B), which involves the enlargement and weakening of the heart chambers. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice C) is characterized by the stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to fill with blood properly. Arrhythmia (choice D) refers to abnormal heart rhythms and is not specifically related to thickening or stiffening of the heart muscle, as seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

3. What test measures the oxygen level in the blood, often used to monitor patients with respiratory or cardiovascular conditions?

• A. Pulse oximetry
• B. Arterial blood gas (ABG)
• C. Echocardiogram
• D. Chest X-ray

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Pulse oximetry. Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive test that measures the oxygen saturation level in the blood, commonly used to monitor respiratory and cardiovascular health. Arterial blood gas (ABG) measures the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood, providing more detailed information than pulse oximetry. Echocardiogram is an ultrasound test used to visualize the heart's structure and function, while a chest X-ray is used to visualize the structures in the chest, such as the heart, lungs, and bones.

4. This is a procedure where a small mesh tube is inserted into an artery to keep it open and improve blood flow.

• A. Stent placement
• B. Angioplasty
• C. Bypass surgery
• D. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stent placement is a procedure where a small mesh tube (stent) is inserted into an artery to keep it open and improve blood flow, often following angioplasty.

5. When administering an ACE inhibitor to a client with heart failure, what is the expected outcome of this medication?

• A. Decreased blood pressure
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Increased cardiac output
• D. Decreased heart rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased cardiac output. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in heart failure to reduce the workload on the heart by decreasing blood pressure and increasing cardiac output. This ultimately helps improve the heart's efficiency and function. Choice A is incorrect because ACE inhibitors generally lead to a reduction in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not increase heart rate. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not typically decrease heart rate in the context of heart failure.

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