the client on furosemide lasix has a potassium level of 31 meql what is the nurses priority action
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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers

1. The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.

2. What is a condition where the heart's electrical impulses are delayed or blocked, leading to a slower or irregular heartbeat?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heart block is the correct answer because it specifically refers to a condition where the heart's electrical impulses are delayed or blocked, resulting in a slower or irregular heartbeat. Tachycardia (choice B) is a condition characterized by a fast heart rate, Bradycardia (choice C) is a slow heart rate, and Arrhythmia (choice D) is a general term used to describe any abnormal heart rhythm, which may or may not involve delays or blocks in electrical impulses.

3. The nurse is giving nitroglycerin sublingually for chest pain. What is the most important instruction to give to the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The tablet should be placed under the tongue and allowed to dissolve completely to ensure rapid absorption. This route of administration allows the medication to be quickly absorbed into the bloodstream. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin is meant to be absorbed sublingually, not swallowed. Choice C is incorrect as chewing the tablet can cause the medication to be rapidly absorbed, leading to adverse effects like a drop in blood pressure. Choice D is incorrect because the client should take only one tablet every 5 minutes up to a maximum of three tablets for chest pain relief.

4. Which condition is characterized by an inability to effectively pump blood, leading to fluid buildup and swelling in the body?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heart failure is the correct answer. It is a condition where the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, resulting in fluid accumulation and swelling in the body. Cardiomyopathy is a disease of the heart muscle that affects its ability to pump blood but is not the specific condition described in the question. Angina is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, not directly related to fluid buildup and swelling. Myocarditis is inflammation of the heart muscle and does not necessarily involve the inability to pump blood effectively.

5. During which process does coronary artery blood flow to the myocardium occur during diastole, when coronary vascular resistance is reduced?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Coronary perfusion pressure. Coronary perfusion pressure refers to the process of coronary artery blood flow to the myocardium during diastole when coronary vascular resistance is reduced. This process ensures that the myocardium receives sufficient oxygen and nutrients for proper functioning. Choice B, Coronary vascular resistance, is the opposite of what is described in the question. During coronary perfusion, resistance is reduced to enhance blood flow. Choices C and D, Diastolic filling and Ventricular ejection, do not directly relate to the process of coronary artery blood flow during diastole.

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