Nursing Elites

1. The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement.
• B. Hold the furosemide and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Continue the current dose of furosemide.
• D. Administer Digibind.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.

2. Which type of medication helps to reduce the workload on the heart by slowing down the heart rate?

• A. Beta-blocker
• B. Calcium channel blocker
• C. Diuretic
• D. ACE inhibitor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beta-blockers are medications that work by blocking the action of hormones like adrenaline, thereby reducing the heart rate and the workload on the heart. This makes them effective in managing high blood pressure and various heart conditions. Calcium channel blockers work by relaxing blood vessels and reducing the heart's workload, but they do not primarily slow down the heart rate. Diuretics help the body get rid of excess salt and water by increasing urine production, which can lower blood pressure but not by slowing down the heart rate. ACE inhibitors work by relaxing blood vessels, not by directly affecting heart rate.

3. What is a type of medication that helps to prevent blood clots by thinning the blood?

• A. Anticoagulant
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. ACE inhibitor
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Anticoagulants are medications specifically designed to prevent blood clots by thinning the blood. They work by interfering with the body's blood clotting process. Beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, and calcium channel blockers are medications used for different purposes such as managing blood pressure, heart conditions, and regulating heart rhythm, respectively. However, they do not have the primary function of preventing blood clots like anticoagulants.

4. The client is on a beta blocker for hypertension. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Respiratory distress

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is on a beta blocker for hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia. Beta blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. Tachycardia (choice B) is unlikely as beta blockers have the opposite effect. Hypertension (choice C) is the condition being treated, not a side effect of beta blockers. Respiratory distress (choice D) is not a common effect of beta blockers and is not typically monitored in clients taking beta blockers.

5. What is the condition where the lung collapses due to air leaking into the space between the lung and chest wall?

• A. Pneumothorax
• B. Pleural effusion
• C. Pulmonary fibrosis
• D. Lung cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pneumothorax is the correct answer. It is the collapse of a lung due to air leaking into the space between the lung and chest wall. This condition often requires emergency treatment. Choice B, Pleural effusion, is the buildup of excess fluid between the layers of the pleura outside the lung, not air. Choice C, Pulmonary fibrosis, is a lung disease characterized by scarring and thickening of lung tissue, not related to lung collapse. Choice D, Lung cancer, is the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the lung, not directly causing lung collapse.

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