Nursing Elites

1. Which structure serves as the major chemoreceptor of the heart?

• A. Carotid body
• B. Aortic body
• C. Vagus nerve
• D. SA node

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, the carotid body. The carotid body is the major chemoreceptor of the heart responsible for detecting changes in blood oxygen, carbon dioxide, and pH levels. This specialized structure helps regulate the cardiovascular system's response to maintain appropriate oxygen levels in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly involved in chemoreception in the heart. The aortic body is primarily involved in blood pressure regulation, the vagus nerve is a cranial nerve responsible for parasympathetic innervation, and the SA node is known as the heart's natural pacemaker.

2. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

• A. Foods high in potassium
• B. Foods high in sodium
• C. Foods high in calcium
• D. Foods high in chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.

3. Which condition is characterized by the lungs becoming scarred and stiff, leading to difficulty breathing and inadequate oxygen intake into the bloodstream?

• A. Pulmonary fibrosis
• B. Cystic fibrosis
• C. COPD
• D. Tuberculosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Pulmonary fibrosis. Pulmonary fibrosis is a lung disease where lung tissue is damaged and scarred, resulting in breathing difficulties and decreased oxygen transfer into the bloodstream. Cystic fibrosis (B) is a genetic disorder primarily affecting the lungs and digestive system, not causing lung scarring. COPD (C) includes conditions like chronic bronchitis and emphysema but doesn't specifically involve lung scarring. Tuberculosis (D) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but doesn't cause lung tissue scarring and stiffness as seen in pulmonary fibrosis.

4. The nurse is administering an ACE inhibitor to a client. What is the most common side effect?

• A. Cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to an increase in bradykinin levels. This irritating cough can be bothersome to clients and should be monitored. Choice B, Dizziness, is not the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors. While ACE inhibitors can cause hypotension (Choice C), cough is more prevalent. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common compared to cough.

5. What structures hold up the AV valves and are anchored to the ventricular wall by the papillary muscles?

• A. Chordae tendineae
• B. Papillary muscles
• C. Semilunar valves
• D. Aortic valve

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chordae tendineae. Chordae tendineae are fibrous cords that connect the AV valves to the papillary muscles, preventing the valves from inverting during ventricular contraction. Papillary muscles (choice B) anchor the chordae tendineae to the ventricular wall but do not hold up the AV valves directly. Semilunar valves (choice C) are located between the ventricles and the major arteries and are not involved in holding up the AV valves. The aortic valve (choice D) is one of the semilunar valves and is not responsible for holding up the AV valves.

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