this is the major chemoreceptor of the heart
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam

1. Which structure serves as the major chemoreceptor of the heart?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, the carotid body. The carotid body is the major chemoreceptor of the heart responsible for detecting changes in blood oxygen, carbon dioxide, and pH levels. This specialized structure helps regulate the cardiovascular system's response to maintain appropriate oxygen levels in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly involved in chemoreception in the heart. The aortic body is primarily involved in blood pressure regulation, the vagus nerve is a cranial nerve responsible for parasympathetic innervation, and the SA node is known as the heart's natural pacemaker.

2. What procedure involves using a balloon to open a narrowed or blocked blood vessel, often followed by the placement of a stent?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Angioplasty. Angioplasty is a procedure that uses a balloon to open a narrowed or blocked blood vessel, often followed by the placement of a stent to maintain vessel patency. Choice B, Valve replacement, involves replacing damaged heart valves, not treating narrowed blood vessels. Choice C, Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), is a procedure to bypass blocked coronary arteries, not directly open them using a balloon. Choice D, Endarterectomy, is a surgical procedure to remove plaque from the inner lining of an artery, not involving the use of a balloon and stent to open a vessel.

3. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.

4. What is a procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space to help a patient breathe easier?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Thoracentesis is the correct answer. It is a procedure where fluid or air is removed from the pleural space in the chest to help the patient breathe more easily. Bronchoscopy (choice B) is a procedure to visualize the airways, while Chest X-ray (choice C) and CT scan (choice D) are imaging tests and do not involve the removal of fluid or air from the pleural space.

5. The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.

Similar Questions

Which of the following is a type of heart attack that occurs when the blood supply to part of the heart muscle is severely reduced or stopped?
What is the term for the amount of blood ejected by the left ventricle into the aorta per beat, determined by preload, contractility, and afterload?
Which medication relaxes the muscles around the airways, making it easier to breathe?
The client on amiodarone reports shortness of breath. What is the nurse’s best response?
The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

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