Nursing Elites

1. Which structure serves as the major chemoreceptor of the heart?

• A. Carotid body
• B. Aortic body
• C. Vagus nerve
• D. SA node

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, the carotid body. The carotid body is the major chemoreceptor of the heart responsible for detecting changes in blood oxygen, carbon dioxide, and pH levels. This specialized structure helps regulate the cardiovascular system's response to maintain appropriate oxygen levels in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly involved in chemoreception in the heart. The aortic body is primarily involved in blood pressure regulation, the vagus nerve is a cranial nerve responsible for parasympathetic innervation, and the SA node is known as the heart's natural pacemaker.

2. What is a condition where the lung's alveoli are permanently enlarged and damaged, leading to shortness of breath?

• A. Emphysema
• B. Bronchitis
• C. Atelectasis
• D. Pulmonary fibrosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Emphysema is the correct answer. It is a chronic lung condition characterized by the permanent enlargement and damage of the alveoli, leading to shortness of breath and impaired oxygen exchange. Bronchitis is the inflammation of the bronchial tubes, not specifically related to alveolar damage. Atelectasis is the collapse of lung tissue, not enlargement. Pulmonary fibrosis involves scarring and thickening of lung tissue, different from the alveolar damage seen in emphysema.

3. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) should avoid which type of food?

• A. Foods high in potassium
• B. Foods high in sodium
• C. Foods high in calcium
• D. Foods high in chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Therefore, clients on spironolactone should avoid foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone specifically affects potassium levels, not sodium, calcium, or chloride.

4. Which condition is characterized by chest pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle?

• A. Angina
• B. Myocardial infarction
• C. Pericarditis
• D. Arrhythmia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Angina. Angina is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, often due to coronary artery disease. Choice B, Myocardial infarction, involves the death of heart muscle tissue due to a lack of blood supply, presenting with symptoms similar to angina but more severe. Pericarditis (Choice C) is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart, which may cause chest pain but is not primarily due to reduced blood flow. Arrhythmia (Choice D) refers to abnormal heart rhythms but is not directly related to chest pain due to reduced blood flow.

5. The client on nitroglycerin patches reports dizziness when standing up. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Advise the client to rise slowly to prevent dizziness.
• B. Instruct the client to discontinue the nitroglycerin patches.
• C. Encourage the client to rest and avoid physical activity.
• D. Suggest the client take an over-the-counter antiemetic.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to rise slowly to prevent dizziness. Dizziness when standing up can be a sign of orthostatic hypotension, a common side effect of nitroglycerin. Rising slowly can help minimize this symptom. Instructing the client to discontinue the nitroglycerin patches (Choice B) is not appropriate without consulting a healthcare provider as sudden discontinuation can lead to adverse effects. Encouraging the client to rest and avoid physical activity (Choice C) does not address the specific issue of orthostatic hypotension. Suggesting the client take an over-the-counter antiemetic (Choice D) is not indicated for dizziness related to orthostatic hypotension.

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